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Professional Capstone and Practicum course.

Details:

Students are required to maintain weekly reflective narratives throughout the course to combine into one course-long reflective journal that integrates leadership and inquiry into current practice as it applies to the Professional Capstone and Practicum course.

In your journal, you will reflect on the personal knowledge and skills gained throughout this course. The journal should address a variable combination of the following, depending on your specific practice immersion clinical experiences:

  1. New practice approaches
  2. Intraprofessional collaboration
  3. Health care delivery and clinical systems
  4. Ethical considerations in health care
  5. Population health concerns
  6. The role of technology in improving health care outcomes
  7. Health policy
  8. Leadership and economic models
  9. Health disparities

Students will outline what they have discovered about their professional practice, personal strengths and weaknesses that surfaced, additional resources and abilities that could be introduced to a given situation to influence optimal outcomes, and finally, how the student met the competencies aligned to this course.

While APA style is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

Suncrest Home Care

APA format 1 page long 3 references  1 from walden university and please use one from the references below

This is for a MSN degree

 

Our team´s selected setting is Suncrest Home Care and Hospice located in rural Iowa.  The focus of our proposed curriculum is to provide hospice caregivers and patients with the education needed to adequately manage pain at the end-of-life.  The hospice nurse would provide the education to family, caregivers, and patients during their initial and follow up visits with patients.  Our audience will largely consist of mature learners at a highly emotional time, therefore I will look at strategies that fall under the adult learning theory.

The first strategy I would apply is that of self-directed learning.  Initially, information would be provided to caregivers and patients, giving them the opportunity to review the education on their own time and develop questions, reinforcing that the information provided will be useful when caring for their hospice patient.  As stated by Keating, “adults are self-directed and will learn information that is useful and relevant to them” (Keating & DeBoor, 2018, p. 111).  This strategy allows the teacher to encompass the role of mentor or coach, encouraging active learning by the participants (Keating & DeBoor, 2018).

The second strategy I would utilize is that of hands-on, or direct demonstration and practice of skills.  As hospice care providers, medication management and symptom recognition are two very important skills to have when caring for a loved one at the end of life (Lau et al., 2009).  An example of utilizing this strategy, would be to utilize pillboxes to dispense medications, as well as keeping a log of symptoms in order to evaluate efficacy.  Adequate pain control and management is a Community Health Accreditation Partner (CHAP) hospice care standard (2018).  Although the hospice nurse will be available for support and as a guide, the main provider of symptom relief will be family or caregivers in the patient´s home; education that will increase medication management knowledge and skill is imperative to provide relief (Chi & Demiris, 2017).

References

Chi, N.-C., & Demiris, G. (2017). Family Caregivers’ Pain Management in End-of-Life Care: A Systematic Review. AMERICAN JOURNAL OF HOSPICE & PALLIATIVE MEDICINE34(5), 470–485. https://doi-org.ezp.waldenulibrary.org/10.1177/1049909116637359

Community Health Accreditation Partner [CHAP]. (2018).  About our history.  Retrieved from https://chapinc.org/contact-about-us/

Keating, S. B., & DeBoor, S. S.  (Ed.). (2018). Curriculum development and evaluation in nursing (4th ed.). New York, NY: Springer.

Lau, D. T., Kasper, J. D., Hauser, J. M., Berdes, C., Chang, C. H., Berman, R. L., Masin-Peters, J., Paice, J., & Emanuel, L. (2009). Family caregiver skills in medication management for hospice patients: a qualitative study to define a construct. The journals of gerontology. Series B, Psychological sciences and social sciences64(6), 799–807. doi:10.1093/geronb/gbp033

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misogynist

Wk 8 Discussion: When the People You Love Don’t Think Like You

 

Required Resources
Read/review the following resources for this activity:

  • Textbook: Chapter 16
  • Lesson
  • Minimum of 1 scholarly source (in addition to the textbook)

Introduction
Facione & Gittens (2016) state, “Strong critical thinking about complex and difficult social policies demands that we respect those with whom we disagree” (p. 344). The authors of your text ask us to take seriously the points of view of those with whom we disagree.

  • Should I respect the point of view of a misogynist – a person who dislikes, despises, or is strongly prejudiced against women?
  • Should I respect the point of view of a racist?
  • How about someone who believes marriage is only between one man and one woman?
  • How about someone who does not believe that humans are contributing to the conditions that cause climate change?
  • How about someone who denies that the Holocaust occurred?

Initial Post Instructions
For the initial post, pick one point of view from the five questions above that you find particularly repugnant – one that you think is completely unjustifiable. If you were in conversation with such a person, how could you ethically respond to the statement of such a point of view? Keep in mind that you are expressing a value opinion, which requires ideological reasoning, so you may want to review Chapter 13.

As you form your response, keep in mind the following; these are things you need to think about but not necessarily to write about in your initial post:

  • Reflect if you are using System-1 or System-2 thinking? Are your responses tinged with cognitive bias?
  • Do you think there is a qualitative difference between believing some races are inferior and the belief that marriage should only be between one man and one woman?
  • Do you think there is a qualitative difference between not believing in human contribution to climate change and not believing in the Holocaust?

Obesity Patient Scenario

Required Assigned Topic

Required assigned topic for the focus of your paper.

  • Obesity Patient Scenario

Requirements and Guidelines

  1. Download the required Milestone 2 Template. (Links to an external site.) Save it to your computer with the file name: Your Last Name NR361 Milestone 2.docx.
  2. You are required to complete the form using the productivity tools required by Chamberlain University, which is Microsoft Office Word 2013 (or later version), or Windows and Office 2011 (or later version) for MAC. You must save the file in the “.docx” format. Do NOT save as Word Pad. A later version of the productivity tool includes Office 365, which is available to Chamberlain students for FREE by downloading from the student portal at http://my.chamberlain.edu (Links to an external site.)
  3. Carefully review the grading rubric criteria for Milestone 2 and type directly on your saved Milestone 2 Template.
  4. Complete all rubric areas for a superior Milestone 2.
  5. Use instructor feedback from Milestone 1 to improve your statements regarding the patient scenario in Milestone 2.
  6. Submit your completed Milestone 2 by Sunday end of Week 4.

**Academic Integrity Reminder**

Chamberlain College of Nursing values honesty and integrity. All students should be aware of the Academic Integrity policy and follow it in all discussions and assignments.

By submitting this assignment, I pledge on my honor that all content contained is my own original work except as quoted and cited appropriately. I have not received any unauthorized assistance on this assignment.

hypothyroidism

Question

Question 1. You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?

Moist and smooth

Moist and rough

Dry and smooth

Dry and rough

Question 2. Question : You are assessing a patient with joint pain and are trying to decide whether it is inflammatory or noninflammatory in nature. Which one of the following symptoms is consistent with an inflammatory process?

Tenderness

Cool temperature

Ecchymosis

Nodules

Question 3. Question : A 68-year-old retired farmer comes to your office for evaluation of a skin lesion. On the right temporal area of the forehead, you see a flattened papule the same color as his skin, covered by a dry scale that is round and feels hard. He has several more of these scattered on the forehead, arms, and legs. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

Actinic keratosis

Seborrheic keratosis

Basal cell carcinoma

Squamous cell carcinoma

Question 4. Question : A 28-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of pain “all over.” With further questioning, she is able to relate that the pain is worse in the neck, shoulders, hands, low back, and knees. She denies swelling in her joints. She states that the pain is worse in the morning. There is no limitation in her range of motion. On physical examination, she has several points on the muscles of the neck, shoulders, and back that are tender to palpation. Muscle strength and range of motion are normal. Which one of the following is likely the cause of her pain?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Osteoarthritis

Fibromyalgia

Polymyalgia rheumatica

Question 5. Question : Heberden’s nodes are commonly found in which one of the following diseases?

Rheumatoid arthritis

Degenerative joint disease

Psoriatic arthritis

Septic arthritis

Question 6. Question : A new patient is complaining of severe pruritus that is worse at night. Several family members also have the same symptoms. Upon examination, areas of excoriated papules are noted on some of the interdigital webs of both hands and on the axillae. This finding is most consistent with:

Contact dermatitis

Impetigo

Larva migrans

Scabies

Question 7. Question : An obese 55-year-old woman went through menarche at age 16 and menopause 2 years ago. She is concerned because an aunt had severe osteoporosis. Which one of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Obesity

Late menopause

Having an aunt with osteoporosis

Delayed menarche

Question 8. Question : Ms. Whiting is a 68-year-old female who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else. She doesn’t mention them. They are tender when you examine them. What should you do?

Conclude that these are lesions she has had for a long time.

Wait for her to mention them before asking further questions.

Ask how she acquired them.

Conduct the visit as usual for the patient.

Question 9. Question : A 58-year-old man comes to your office complaining of bilateral back pain that now awakens him at night. This has been steadily increasing for the past 2 months. Which one of the following is the most reassuring in this patient with back pain?

: Age over 50

Pain at night

Pain lasting more than 1 month or not responding to therapy

Pain that is bilateral

Question 10. Question : The Phalen’s test is used to evaluate:

Inflammation of the median nerve

Rheumatoid arthritis

Degenerative joint changes

Chronic tenosynovitis

1. Question : Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?

The presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum

Being unable to palpate superior to the mass

A positive transillumination test

Normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum

Question 2. Question : You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum. What should you do next?

Refer to urology

Recheck in six months

Tell the parent the testicle is absent but that this should not affect fertility

Attempt to bring down the testis from the inguinal canal

Question 3. Question : A 50-year-old truck driver comes to your clinic for a work physical. He has had no upper respiratory, cardiac, pulmonary, gastrointestinal, urinary, or musculoskeletal system complaints. His past medical history is significant for mild arthritis and prior knee surgery in college. He is married and just changed jobs, working for a different trucking company. He smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, drinks less than six beers a week, and denies using any illegal drugs. His mother has high blood pressure and arthritis and his father died of lung cancer in his sixties. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/80 and his pulse is 80. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He has no inguinal hernia, but on his digital rectal examination you palpate a soft, smooth, and nontender pedunculated mass on the posterior wall of the rectum. What anal, rectal, or prostate disorder best fits his presentation?

Internal hemorrhoid

Prostate cancer

Anorectal cancer

Rectal polyp

Question 4. Question : A 15-year-old high school football player is brought to your office by his mother. He is complaining of severe testicular pain since exactly 8:00 this morning. He denies any sexual activity and states that he hurts so bad he can’t even urinate. He is nauseated and is throwing up. He denies any recent illness or fever. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His parents are both in good health. On examination, you see a young teenager lying on the bed with an emesis basin. He is very uncomfortable and keeps shifting his position. His blood pressure is 150/100, his pulse is 110, and his respirations are 24. On visualization of the penis, he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right. By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup.

Acute orchitis

Acute epididymitis

Torsion of the spermatic cord

Prostatitis

Question 5. Question : Which is true of prostate cancer?

It is commonly lethal.

It is one of the less common forms of cancer.

Family history does not appear to be a risk factor.

Ethnicity is a risk factor.

Question 6. Question : Which of the following conditions involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be returned?

Phimosis

Paraphimosis

Balanitis

Balanoposthitis

Question 7. Question : A 12-year-old is brought to your clinic by his father. He was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday, when he felt his left testicle, it was enlarged and tender. He isn’t sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last three days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination, you see a child in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable. What abnormality of the testes does this child most likely have?

Acute orchitis

Acute epididymitis

Torsion of the spermatic cord

Prostatitis

Question 8. Question : The most common cause of cancer deaths in males is:

Lung cancer

Prostate cancer

Colon cancer

Skin cancer

Question 9. Question : Important techniques in performing the rectal examination include which of the following?

Lubrication

Waiting for the sphincter to relax

Explaining what the patient should expect with each step before it occurs

All of the above

Question 10. Question : Jim is a 47-year-old man who is having difficulties with sexual function. He is recently separated from his wife of 20 years. He notes that he has early morning erections but otherwise cannot function. Which of the following is a likely cause for his problem?

Decreased testosterone levels

Psychological issues

Abnormal hypogastric arterial circulation

Impaired neural innervation

Question 1. Which of the following is true of human papilloma virus (HPV) infection?

Pap smear is a relatively ineffective screening method.

It commonly resolves spontaneously in one to two years.

It is the second most common STI in the United States.

HPV infections cause a small but important number of cervical cancers.

Question 2. Question : Which of the following is the most effective pattern of palpation for breast cancer?

Beginning at the nipple, make an ever-enlarging spiral.

Divide the breast into quadrants and inspect each systematically.

Examine in lines resembling the back and forth pattern of mowing a lawn.

Beginning at the nipple, palpate vertically in a stripe pattern.

Question 3. Question : A 14-year-old junior high school student is brought in by his mother and father because he seems to be developing breasts. The mother is upset because she read on the Internet that smoking marijuana leads to breast enlargement in males. The young man adamantly denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. He has recently noticed changes in his penis, testicles, and pubic hair pattern. Otherwise, his past medical history is unremarkable. His parents are both in good health. He has two older brothers who never had this problem. On examination, you see a mildly overweight teenager with enlarged breast tissue that is slightly tender on both sides. Otherwise, his examination is normal. He is agreeable to taking a drug test. What is the most likely cause of his gynecomastia?

Breast cancer

Imbalance of hormones of puberty

Drug use

Question 4. Question : Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?

Fewer than 21 days between menses

Excessive flow

Infrequent bleeding

Bleeding between periods

Question 5. Question : What does a KOH (potassium hydroxide) prep help the nurse practitioner diagnose?

Herpes zoster infections

Yeast infections

Herpes simplex infections

Viral infections

Question 6. Question : Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus. Which of the following is true?

This is most likely due to lack of lubrication.

This is most likely due to atrophic vaginitis.

This is most likely due to pressure on an ovary.

Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition.

Question 7. Question : A 30-year-old man notices a firm, 2-cm mass under his areola. He has no other symptoms and no diagnosis of breast cancer in his first-degree relatives. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Breast tissue

Fibrocystic disease

Breast cancer

Lymph node

Question 8. Question : Which of the following is true regarding breast self-examination?

It has been shown to reduce mortality from breast cancer.

It is recommended unanimously by organizations making screening recommendations.

A high proportion of breast masses are detected by breast self-examination.

The undue fear caused by finding a mass justifies omitting instruction in breast self-examination.

Question 9. Question : A 23-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for an annual examination. She has recently become sexually active and wants to be placed on birth control. Her only complaint is that the skin in her armpits has become darker. She states it looks like dirt, and she scrubs her skin nightly with soap and water but the color stays. Her past medical symptoms consist of acne and mild obesity. Her periods have been irregular for 3 years. Her mother has type 2 diabetes, and her father has high blood pressure. The patient denies using tobacco but has four to five drinks on Friday and Saturday nights. She denies any illegal drug use. On examination, you see a mildly obese female who is breathing comfortably. Her vital signs are unremarkable. Looking under her axilla, you see dark, velvet-like skin. Her annual examination is otherwise unremarkable. What disorder of the breast or axilla is she most likely to have?

Peau d’orange

Acanthosis nigricans

Hidradenitis suppurativa

Question 10. Question : Which of the following is true of women who have had a unilateral mastectomy?

They no longer require breast examination.

They should be examined carefully along the surgical scar for masses.

Lymphedema of the ipsilateral arm usually suggests recurrence of breast cancer.

Women with breast reconstruction over their mastectomy site no longer require examination.

Question 1. A 76-year-old retired farmer comes to your office complaining of abdominal pain, constipation, and a low-grade fever for about three days. He denies any nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. The only unusual thing he remembers eating is two bags of popcorn at the movies with his grandson, three days before his symptoms began. He denies any other recent illnesses. His past medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and high blood pressure. He has been married for over fifty years. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His mother died of colon cancer and his father had a stroke. On examination, he appears his stated age and is in no acute distress. His temperature is 100.9 degrees and his other vital signs are unremarkable. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are normal. He has normal bowel sounds and is tender over the left lower quadrant. He has no rebound or guarding. His rectal examination is unremarkable and his fecal occult blood test is negative.His prostate is slightly enlarged but his testicular, penile, and inguinal  examinations are all normal. Blood work is pending.

What diagnosis for abdominal pain best describes his symptoms and signs?

Acute diverticulitis

Acute cholecystitis

Acute appendicitis

Mesenteric ischemia

Question 2. Question : Jim is a 60-year-old man who presents with vomiting. He denies seeing any blood with emesis, which has been occurring for two days. He does note a dark, granular substance resembling the coffee left in the filter after brewing. What do you suspect?

Bleeding from a diverticulum

Bleeding from a peptic ulcer

Bleeding from a colon cancer

Bleeding from cholecystitis

Question 3. Question : A 26-year-old sports store manager comes to your clinic, complaining of severe right-sided abdominal pain for twelve hours. He began having a stomachache yesterday, with a decreased appetite, but today the pain seems to be just on the lower right side. He has had some nausea and vomiting but no constipation or diarrhea. His last bowel movement was the night before and was normal. He has had no fever or chills. He denies any recent illnesses or injuries. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is engaged. He denies any tobacco or drug use and drinks four to six beers per week. His mother has breast cancer and his father has coronary artery disease. On examination, he appears ill and is lying on his right side. His temperature is 100.4 degrees and his heart rate is 110. His bowel sounds are decreased and he has rebound and involuntary guarding, one-third of the way between the anterior superior iliac spine and the umbilicus in the right lower quadrant (RLQ). His rectal, inguinal, prostate, penile, and testicular examinations are normal.

What is the most likely cause of his pain?

Acute appendicitis

Acute mechanical intestinal obstruction

Acute cholecystitis

Mesenteric ischemia

Question 4. Question : Josh is a 14-year-old boy who presents with a sore throat. On examination, you notice dullness in the last intercostal space in the anterior axillary line on his left side with a deep breath. What does this indicate?

His spleen is definitely enlarged and further workup is warranted.

His spleen is possibly enlarged and close attention should be paid to further examination.

His spleen is possibly enlarged and further workup is warranted.

His spleen is definitely normal.

Question 5. Question : Diminished radial pulses may be seen in patients with which of the following?

Aortic insufficiency

Hyperthyroidism

Arterial emboli

Early “warm” septic shock

Question 6. Question : A 42-year-old florist comes to your office, complaining of chronic constipation for the last six months. She has had no nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, and no abdominal pain or cramping. She denies any recent illnesses or injuries. She denies any changes to her diet or exercise program. She is on no new medications. During the review of systems (ROS), you note that she has felt fatigued, had some weight gain, has irregular periods, and has cold intolerance. Her past medical history is significant for one vaginal delivery and two cesarean sections. She is married, has three children, and owns a flower shop. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has coronary artery disease. There is no family history of cancers. On examination, she appears her stated age. Her vital signs are normal. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. Her cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also unremarkable. Her rectal occult blood test is negative. Her deep tendon reflexes are delayed in response to a blow with the hammer, especially the Achilles tendons.

What is the best choice for the cause of her constipation?

Large bowel obstruction

Irritable bowel syndrome

Rectal cancer

Hypothyroidism

Question 7. Question : A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of sixteen, but is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?

Intermittent claudication

Chest pressure with exertion

Shortness of breath

Knee pain

Question 8. Question : You are assessing a 59-year-old gas station owner for atherosclerosis in the lower extremities. In which of the following locations would the patient’s pain make you concerned for this disease process?

Thigh

Knee

Calf

Ankle

Question 9. Question : A 55-year-old secretary with a recent history of breast cancer, for which she underwent surgery and radiation therapy, and a history of hypertension comes to your office for a routine checkup. Which of the following aspects of the physical are important to note when assessing the patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms?

Femoral pulse, popliteal pulse

Dorsalis pedis pulse, posterior tibial pulse

Carotid pulse

Radial pulse, brachial pulse

Question 10. Question : Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. On examination of this area, a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?

It is a splenic rub.

It is a variant of bowel noise.

It represents borborygmi.

It is a vascular noise.

Question 1.A 30-year-old woman with a history of mitral valve problems states that she has been “very tired.” She has started waking up at night and feels like her “heart is pounding.” During the assessment, the nurse practitioner palpates a thrill and lift at the fifth left intercostal space midclavicular line. In the same area the nurse practitioner also auscultates a blowing, swishing sound right after S1. These findings would be most consistent with:

heart failure.

aortic stenosis.

pulmonary edema.

mitral regurgitation.

Question 2. Question : A patient presents with excruciating headache pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek that lasts about 1/2 to 2 hours, occurring once or twice each day. The nurse practitioner suspects:

hypertension.

cluster headaches.

tension headaches.

migraine headaches.

Question 3. Question : A patient complains that while studying for an examination he began to notice a severe headache in the frontotemporal area of his head that is throbbing and is somewhat relieved when he lies down. He tells the nurse practitioner that his mother also had these headaches. The nurse practitioner suspects that he may be suffering from:

hypertension.

cluster headaches.

tension headaches.

migraine headaches.

Question 4. Question : A patient tells the nurse practitioner that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot.” This type of data would be:

objective.

reflective.

subjective.

introspective

Question 5. Question : The most important reason to share information and offer brief teaching while performing the physical examination is to help:

the examiner feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation.

build rapport and increase the patient’s confidence in the examiner.

the patient understand his or her disease process and treatment modalities.

the patient identify questions about his or her disease and potential areas of patient education.

Question 6. Question : A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adam’s apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that reassures the nurse practitioner that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump (nodule):

is tender.

is mobile and not hard.

disappears when the patient smiles.

is hard and fixed to the surrounding structures.

Question 7. Question : A patient visits the clinic because he has recently noticed that the left side of his mouth is paralyzed. He states that he cannot raise his eyebrow or whistle. The nurse practitioner suspects that he has:

Cushing’s syndrome.

Parkinson’s syndrome.

Bell’s palsy.

had a cerebrovascular accident (stroke).

Question 8. Question : The temporomandibular joint is just below the temporal artery and anterior to the:

hyoid.

vagus.

tragus.

mandible.

Question 9. Question : During an examination of a patient’s abdomen, the nurse practitioner notes that the abdomen is rounded and firm to the touch. During percussion, the nurse practitioner notes a drum-like quality of the sound across the quadrants. This type of sound indicates:

constipation.

air-filled areas.

the presence of a tumor.

the presence of dense organs.

Question 10. Question : A patient tells the nurse that he is allergic to penicillin. What would be the nurse practitioner’s best response to this information?

“Are you allergic to any other drugs?”

“How often have you received penicillin?”

“I’ll write your allergy on your chart so you won’t receive any.

“Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin.

Question 11. Question : A patient’s thyroid is enlarged, and the nurse practitioner is preparing to auscultate the thyroid for the presence of a bruit. A bruit is a:

low gurgling sound best heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.

loud, whooshing, blowing sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope.

soft, whooshing, pulsatile sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope.

high-pitched tinkling sound best heard with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.

Question 12. Question : After completing an initial assessment on a patient, the nurse practitioner has documented that his respirations are eupneic and his pulse is 58. This type of data would be:

objective.

reflective.

subjective.

introspective.

Question 13. Question : A patient tells the nurse that she has had abdominal pain for the past week. What would be the best response by the nurse?

“Can you point to where it hurts?”

“We’ll talk more about that later in the interview.

“What have you had to eat in the last 24 hours?”

“Have you ever had any surgeries on your abdomen?”

Question 14. Question : A teenage patient comes to the emergency department with complaints of an inability to “breathe and a sharp pain in my left chest.” The assessment findings include the following: cyanosis, tachypnea, tracheal deviation to the right, decreased tactile fremitus on the left, hyperresonance on the left, and decreased breath sounds on the left. This description is consistent with:

bronchitis.

a pneumothorax.

acute pneumonia.

an asthmatic attack.

Question 15. Question : The inspection phase of the physical assessment:

yields little information.

takes time and reveals a surprising amount of information.

may be somewhat uncomfortable for the expert practitioner.

requires a quick glance at the patient’s body systems before proceeding on with palpation.

Question 16. Question : The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse practitioner?

“It is unusual for a small child to have frequent ear infections unless there is something else wrong.

“We need to check the immune system of your son to see why he is having so many ear infections.

“Ear infections are not uncommon in infants and toddlers because they tend to have more cerumen in the external ear.

“Your son’s eustachian tube is shorter and wider than yours because of his age, which allows for infections to develop more easily.

Question 17. Question : The nurse practitioner would use bimanual palpation technique in which situation?

Palpating the thorax of an infant

Palpating the kidneys and uterus

Assessing pulsations and vibrations

Assessing the presence of tenderness and pain

Question 18. Question : The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

database.

admitting data.

financial statement.

discharge summary.

Question 19. Question : When preparing to perform a physical examination on an infant, the examiner should:

have the parent remove all clothing except the diaper on a boy.

instruct the parent to feed the infant immediately before the exam.

encourage the infant to suck on a pacifier during the abdominal exam.

ask the parent to briefly leave the room when assessing the infant’s vital signs.

Question 20. Question : The nurse practitioner notices that an infant has a large, soft lump on the side of his head and that his mother is very concerned. She tells the nurse practitioner that she noticed the lump about 8 hours after her baby’s birth, and that it seems to be getting bigger. One possible explanation for this is:

hydrocephalus.

craniosynostosis.

cephalhematoma.

caput succedaneum.

Question 21. Question : When examining an infant, the nurse practitioner should examine which area first?

Ear

Nose

Throat

Abdomen

Question 22. Question : When preparing to examine a 6-year-old child, which action is most appropriate?

Start with the thorax, abdomen, and genitalia before examining the head.

Avoid talking about the equipment being used because it may increase the child’s anxiety.

Keep in mind that a child this age will have a sense of modesty.

Have the child undress from the waist up.

Question 23. Question : The nurse practitioner is assessing a patient’s skin during an office visit. What is the best technique to use to best assess the patient’s skin temperature?

Use the fingertips because they’re more sensitive to small changes in temperature.

Use the dorsal surface of the hand because the skin is thinner than on the palms.

Use the ulnar portion of the hand because there is increased blood supply that enhances temperature sensitivity.

Use the palmar surface of the hand because it is most sensitive to temperature variations because of increased nerve supply in this area.

Question 24. Question : Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:

flatness, resonance, and dullness.

resonance, dullness, and tympany.

tympany, hyperresonance, and dullness.

resonance, hyperresonance, and flatness.

Question 25. Question : The nurse practitioner is assessing a patient for possible peptic ulcer disease and knows that which condition often causes this problem?

Hypertension

Streptococcus infections

History of constipation and frequent laxative use

Frequent use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Question 1: You are participating in a health fair and performing cholesterol screens. One person has a cholesterol level of 225. She is concerned about her risk for developing heart disease. Which of the following factors is used to estimate the 10-year risk of developing coronary heart disease?

Ethnicity

Alcohol intake

Gender

Asthma

Question 2. Question : You are concerned that a patient has an aortic regurgitation murmur. Which is the best position to accentuate the murmur?

Upright

Upright, but leaning forward

Supine

Left lateral decubitus

Question 3. Question : You are screening people at the mall as part of a health fair. The first person who comes for screening has a blood pressure of 132/85. How would you categorize this?

Normal

Prehypertension

Stage 1 hypertension

Stage 2 hypertension

Question 4. Question : How should you determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic?

Palpate the carotid pulse.

Palpate the radial pulse.

Judge the relative length of systole and diastole by auscultation.

Correlate the murmur with a bedside heart monitor.

Question 5. Question : A 78-year-old retired seamstress comes to the office for a routine check-up. You obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG) because of her history of hypertension. You diagnose a previous myocardial infarction and ask her if she had any symptoms related to this.Which of the following symptoms would be more common in this patient’s  age group for an AMI?

Chest pain

Syncope

Pain radiating into the left arm

Pain radiating into the jaw

Question 6. Question : On examination, you find a bounding carotid pulse on a 62-year-old patient. Which murmur should you suspect?

Mitral valve prolapse

Pulmonic stenosis

Tricuspid insufficiency

Aortic insufficiency

Question 7. Question : Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude point of maximal impulse (PMI)?

Hyperthyroidism

Anemia

Fever

Hypertension

Question 8. Question : A 68-year-old woman with hypertension and diabetes is seen by the nurse practitioner for a dry cough that worsens at night when she lies in bed. She has shortness of breath, which worsens when she exerts herself. The patient’s pulse rate is 90/min and regular. The patient has gained 6 lbs over the past two months. She is on a nitroglycerine patch and furosemide daily. The explanation for her symptoms is:

Kidney failure

Congestive heart failure

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor induced coughing

Thyroid disease

Question 9. Question : When listening to a soft murmur or bruit, which of the following may be necessary?

Asking the patient to hold their breath.

Asking the patient in the next bed to turn down the TV.

Checking your stethoscope for air leaks.

All of the above.

Question 10. Question : You notice a patient has a strong pulse and then a weak pulse. This pattern continues. Which of the following is likely?

Emphysema

Asthma exacerbation

Severe left heart failure

Cardiac tamponade

Question 1. Question : A patient complains of shortness of breath for the past few days. On examination, you note late inspiratory crackles in the lower third of the chest that were not present a week ago. What is the most likely explanation for these?

Asthma

COPD

Bronchiectasis

Heart failure

Question 2. Question : A sixty-year-old baker presents to your clinic, complaining of increasing shortness of breath and nonproductive cough over the last month. She feels like she can’t do as much activity as she used to do without becoming tired. She even has to sleep upright in her recliner at night to be able to breathe comfortably. She denies any chest pain, nausea, or sweating. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and coronary artery disease. She had a hysterectomy in her 40s for heavy vaginal bleeding. She is married and is retiring from the local bakery soon. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother died of a stroke, and her father died from prostate cancer.She denies any  recent upper respiratory illness, and she has had no other symptoms. On examination, she is in no acute distress. Her blood pressure is 160/100, and her pulse is 100. She is afebrile, and her respiratory rate is 16. With auscultation, she has distant air sounds and she has late inspiratory crackles in both lower lobes. On cardiac examination, the S1 and S2 are distant and an S3 is heard over the apex.

Pneumonia

COPD

Pleural pain

Left-sided heart failure

Question 3. Question : A patient with long-standing COPD was told by another practitioner that his liver was enlarged and this needed to be assessed. Which of the following would be reasonable to do next?

Percuss the lower border of the liver.

Measure the span of the liver.

Order a hepatitis panel.

Obtain an ultrasound of the liver.

Question 4. Question : A fifty-five-year-old smoker complains of chest pain and gestures with a closed fist over her sternum to describe it. Which of the following diagnoses should be considered because of her gesture?

Bronchitis

Costochondritis

Pericarditis

Angina pectoris

Question 5. Question : When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology?

Bronchitis

Simple asthma

Cystic fibrosis

Heart failure

Question 6. Question : Is the following information subjective or objective? Mr. Mazz has shortness of breath that has persisted for the past ten days; it is worse with activity and relieved by rest.

Subjective

Objective

Question 7. Question : All of the following are implicated in causing chronic cough except:

Chronic bronchitis

Allergic rhinitis

Acute viral upper respiratory infection

Gastroesophageal reflux disease

Question 8. Question : A mother brings her infant to you because of a “rattle” in his chest with breathing. Which of the following would you hear if there is a problem in the upper airway?

Different sounds from the nose and the chest

Asymmetric sounds

Inspiratory sounds

Sounds louder in the lower chest

Question 9. Question : Which of the following is consistent with good percussion technique?

Allow all of the fingers to touch the chest while performing percussion.

Maintain a stiff wrist and hand.

Leave the plexor finger on the pleximeter after each strike.

Strike the pleximeter over the distal interphalangeal joint.

peptic ulcer

Question 1 A 42-year-old man is being treated for a peptic ulcer with ranitidine (Zantac) taken PO at bedtime. Even though few adverse effects are associated with this drug, one common adverse effect that can be severe is

A) headache
B) irritability
C) dry mouth
D) heart palpitations

Question 2 A patient on 5-FU calls the clinic and reports that he has between five and seven loose bowel movements daily. The nurse will instruct the patient to

A) treat the diarrhea with OTC medications
B) avoid protein-rich foods
C) avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice
D) notify the clinic if the stools are black or if there is evidence of blood

Question 3 A patient has been prescribed a histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonist for the treatment of GERD. Why are H2RAs more effective than H1 receptor antagonists in the treatment of diseases of the upper GI tract?

A) H2RAs have a longer duration of action and fewer adverse effects than H1RAs
B) The parietal cells of the stomach have H2 receptors but not H1 receptors
C) H2RAs may be administered orally and in an outpatient environment but H1RAs require intravenous administration
D) H2 receptors in the upper GI tract outnumber H1 receptors by a factor of 2:1

Question 4 To maximize the therapeutic effect of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate, the nurse will instruct the patient to take the medication

A) once a day
B) twice a day
C) every 2 hours
D) four times a day

Question 5 A 22-year-old male college senior has lived with a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease for several years and has undergone several courses of treatment with limited benefit. Which of the following targeted therapies has the potential to alleviate the symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A) Tositumomab plus 131I (Bexxar)
B) Muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
C) Infliximab (Remicade)
D) Eculizumab (Soliris)

Question 6 A patient has been prescribed rabeprazole (Aciphex). It will be important for the nurse to assess the patient’s drug history to determine if the patient is taking which of the following drugs?

A) Levodopa
B) Morphine
C) Digoxin
D) Dicyclomine hydrochloride

Question 7 An adult patient who has been diagnosed with a rectal tumor is scheduled to begin treatment with cisplatin. The nurse has conducted patient teaching about the possibility of nausea and vomiting. In order to reduce the patient’s risk of severe nausea, the nurse should

A) place the patient on a low-residue diet
B) ensure that the patient is NPO from midnight prior to receiving the drug
C) administer a combination of antiemetics prior to the administration of the drug
D) encourage the patient to request antiemetics if the nausea becomes unbearable

Question 8 It is determined that a patient, who is in a hepatic coma, needs a laxative. Lactulose is prescribed. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to assess the efficacy of the lactulose therapy?

A) Water levels in the colon
B) Oncotic pressure in the colon
C) Blood ammonia levels
D) Relief from symptoms

Question 9 A 60-year-old man has scheduled a follow-up appointment with his primary care provider stating that the omeprazole (Prilosec) which he was recently prescribed is ineffective. The patient states,“I take it as soon as I feel heartburn coming on, but it doesn’t seem to help at all.” How should the nurse best respond to this patient’s statement?

A) “It could be that Prilosec isn’t the right drug for you, so it would be best to talk this over with your care provider.”
B) “Prilosec won’t really decrease the sensation of heartburn, but it is still minimizing the damage to your throat and stomach that can be caused by the problem.”
C) “Prilosec will help your heartburn but it’s not designed to provide immediate relief of specific episodes of heartburn.”
D) “A better strategy is to take a dose of Prilosec 15 to 30 minutes before meals or drinks that cause you to get heartburn.”

Question 10 A 33-year-old woman has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). The physician has prescribed simethicone (Mylicon) for her discomfort.Which of the following will the nurse monitor most closely during the patient’s drug therapy?

A) Drug toxicity
B) Anorexia
C) Increased abdominal pain and vomiting
D) Increased urine output

Question 11 Mr. Tan is a 69-year-old man who prides himself in maintaining an active lifestyle and a healthy diet that includes adequate fluid intake. However, Mr. Tan states that he has experienced occasional constipation in recent months. What remedy should be the nurse’s first suggestion?

A) Bismuth subsalicylate
B) A bulk-forming (fiber) laxative
C) A stimulant laxative
D) A hyperosmotic laxative

Question 12 A 29-year-old woman has been prescribed alosetron (Lotronex) for irritable bowel syndrome. Before starting the drug therapy, the nurse will advise the patient about which of the following adverse effect(s)?

A) Constipation
B) Breathlessness and hypotension
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Impaired cardiac function

Question 13 A 29-year-old female patient has been prescribed orlistat (Xenical) for morbid obesity. The nurse is providing patient education concerning the drug. An important instruction to the patient would be to

A) omit the dose if the meal does not contain fat
B) take orlistat and multivitamins together
C) take orlistat in one dose at breakfast
D) omit the dose if the meal does not contain protein

Question 14 Prior to administering a dose of 5-FU to a patient with pancreatic cancer, the nurse is conducting the necessary drug research. The nurse is aware that 5-FU is a cell cycle–specific chemotherapeutic agent. Which of the following statements best describes cell cycle–specific drugs?

A) They follow a specific sequence of cytotoxic events in order to achieve cell death
B) They affect cancerous cells during a particular phase of cellular reproduction
C) They achieve a synergistic effect when administered in combination with cell cycle–nonspecific drugs
D) They affect cancerous cells and normal body cells in a similar manner

Question 15 A patient with a long history of alcohol abuse has been admitted to an acute medical unit with signs and symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy. His current medication orders include QID doses of oral lactulose. What desired outcomes should the nurse associate with this drug order?

A) Patient will have three to four loose bowel movements each day
B) Patient will express relief from constipation
C) Patient will have formed bowel movements that do not contain frank or occult blood
D) Patient will express an understanding of his current bowel regimen

Question 16 A nurse is assessing a female patient who is taking diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that she is experiencing an allergic reaction?

A) Numbness of extremities
B) Headache and lethargy
C) Toxic megacolon
D) Urticaria

Question 17 A 73-year-old woman has scheduled an appointment with her nurse practitioner to discuss her recurrent constipation. The woman states that she experiences constipation despite the fact that she takes docusate on a daily basis and performs cleansing enemas several times weekly.How should the nurse best respond to this patient’s statements?

A) “Because we become more prone to constipation as we age, you’ll likely need to increase the number of stool softeners you take.”
B) “I’ll refer you to a specialist because it could be that you have a disease affecting your bowels or stomach.”
C) “Taking too many laxatives can make your bowels dependent on them, making you more susceptible to constipation.”
D) “Try using a different over-the-counter laxative and see that if you resolves your problem.”

Question 18 A patient develops diarrhea secondary to antibiotic therapy. He is to receive two tablets of diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate (Lomotil) orally as needed for each loose stool. The nurse should inform him that he may experience

A) dizziness
B) bradycardia
C) muscle aches
D) increase in appetite

Question 19 A patient who takes aluminum hydroxide with magnesium hydroxide (Mylanta) frequently for upset stomach, heartburn, and sour stomach is seen regularly in the clinic. The nurse should assess which of the following?

A) Blood glucose level
B) Serum phosphate level
C) Urine specific gravity
D) Aspartate transaminase levels

Question 20 A teenage boy has undergone a diagnostic workup following several months of persistent, bloody diarrhea that appears to lack an infectious etiology. The boy has also experienced intermittent abdominal pain and has lost almost 15 pounds this year. Which of the following medications is most likely to treat this boy’s diagnosis?

A) Lubiprostone
B) Mesalamine
C) Docusate
D) Bismuth subsalicylate

Question 21 Mesalamine (Asacol) is prescribed for a 22-year-old woman with Crohn disease. The nurse will discuss with the patient the possibility for which of the following adverse effects related to the new drug therapy?

A) Hair loss
B) Metallic taste
C) Fatigue
D) Increased appetite

Question 22 A 58-year-old man is prescribed dicyclomine (Bentyl) for irritable bowel syndrome. In which of the following conditions is dicyclomine therapy contraindicated?

A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Glaucoma
D) Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 23 A nurse is planning care for a 59-year-old woman who is on ranitidine therapy. The nurse is concerned for the patient’s safety.Which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis?

A) Diarrhea related to adverse effects of drug therapy
B) Acute Pain related to adverse drug effects, headache
C) Risk for Injury related to drug-induced somnolence, dizziness, confusion, or hallucinations
D) Potential Complication: Electrolyte Imbalance related to hypophosphatemia, secondary to drug therapy

Question 24 A 57-year-old man is to begin 5-FU therapy for colon cancer. It will be most important for the nurse to monitor which of the following during the first 72 hours of the initial treatment cycle?

A) Myelosuppression
B) Cardiac events
C) White blood cell nadir
D) Nausea and vomiting

Question 25 A patient is taking cholestyramine. The nurse will assess for which of the following common adverse effects of the drug?

A) Abdominal pain
B) Headache
C) Constipation
D) Indigestion

Question 26 A patient comes to the clinic asking for help to quit drinking alcohol. She has a 21-year history of heavy drinking and is worried about developing cirrhosis of the liver. The patient agrees to take disulfiram (Antabuse). The nurse will teach the patient that the combination of alcohol and Antabuse will cause which of the following?

A) Bradycardia
B) Diarrhea
C) Nausea
D) Slight headache

Question 27 A 52-year-old man is suffering from a deficiency of exocrine pancreatic secretions and is prescribed pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). Before the medication therapy begins, the nurse will assess for allergies related to

A) ragweed
B) pollen
C) pork
D) shellfish

Question 28 A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a patient who will be taking fludrocortisone at home. The nurse will encourage the patient to eat a diet that is

A) low in sodium and potassium
B) low in sodium, high in potassium
C) high in iron
D) low in proteins

Question 29 A nurse is aware that diphenoxylate HCl with atropine sulfate is an effective adjunct in the treatment of diarrhea. For which of the following patients could the administration of this drug be potentially harmful?

A) An 80-year-old man who has diarrhea secondary to Clostridium difficile infection
B) A woman who has experienced severe diarrhea associated with influenza
C) A man who has experienced diarrhea shortly after beginning tube feeding through a nasogastric tube
D) A 60-year-old woman who tends to get diarrhea during periods of intense stress

Question 30 A clinic nurse is planning care for a 68-year-old man who has been on omeprazole (Prilosec) therapy for heartburn for some time. Regarding the patient’s safety, which of the following would be a priority nursing action?

A) Teach the patient to take omeprazole 1 hour before meals
B) Emphasize that the drug should not be crushed or chewed
C) Coordinate bone density testing for the patient
D) Monitor the patient for the development of diarrhea

Question 31 A nurse is overseeing the care of a young man whose ulcerative colitis is being treated with oral prednisone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take in order to minimize the potential for adverse drug effects and risks associated with prednisone treatment?

A) Avoid OTC antacids for the duration of treatment
B) Advocate for intravenous, rather than oral, administration
C) Teach the patient strategies for dealing with headaches
D) Carefully assess the patient for infections

Question 32 A woman with numerous chronic health problems has been diagnosed with a benign gastric ulcer has begun treatment with ranitidine (Zantac). Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide to this patient?

A) “Quitting smoking will significantly increase the chance that this drug will heal your ulcer.”
B) “This drug will help to eliminate the bacteria in your stomach that caused your ulcer.”
C) “You should eat several small meals each day rather than three larger meals.”
D) “Take each dose of ranitidine with an antacid of your choice.”

Question 33 A patient has GERD and is taking ranitidine (Zantac). She continues to have gastric discomfort and asks whether she can take an antacid. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

A) “Sure, you may take an antacid with ranitidine.”
B) “No, the two drugs will work against each other.”
C) “Yes, but be sure to wait at least 2 hours to take the antacid after you take the ranitidine.”
D) “I wouldn’t advise it. You may experience severe constipation.”

Question 34 A woman with an inflammatory skin disorder has begun taking prednisone in an effort to control the signs and symptoms of her disease. The nurse who is providing care for this patient should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses in the organization of the patient’s care?

A) Fluid Volume Excess
B) Constipation
C) Acute Confusion
D) Impaired Gas Exchange

Question 35 Following an endoscopy, a 66-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer resulting from Helicobacter pylori infection. Which of the following medications will likely be used in an attempt to eradicate the patient’s H. pylori infection? (Select all that apply.)is situation?

A) A PPI
B) Antibiotics
C) Cisapride (Propulsid)
D) Aluminum hydroxide

scholarly activities

Throughout the course, students will engage in weekly reflection and scholarly activities. These assignments are presented in Topic 1 to allow students to plan ahead, and incorporate the deliverables into the Individual Success Plan if they so choose.

The weekly reflective journals and scholarly activities will not be submitted in LoudCloud each week; a final, culminating submission will be due in Topic 10. No submission is required until Topic 10.

Professional Capstone and Practicum Reflective Journal

Students are required to maintain weekly reflective narratives throughout the course to combine into a final, course-long reflective journal that integrates leadership and inquiry into current practice as it applies to the Professional Capstone and Practicum course. This course-long journal assignment will be due in Topic 10.

In each week’s entry, you should reflect on the personal knowledge and skills gained throughout the Professional Capstone and Practicum course. Your entry should address a variable combination of the following, dependent on the specific practice immersion clinical experiences you encountered that week:

  1. New practice approaches
  2. Intraprofessional collaboration
  3. Health care delivery and clinical systems
  4. Ethical considerations in health care
  5. Population health concerns
  6. The role of technology in improving health care outcomes
  7. Health policy
  8. Leadership and economic models
  9. Health disparities

In the Topic 10 submission, each of the areas should be addressed in one or more of the weekly entries.

This reflection journal also allows students to outline what they have discovered about their professional practice, personal strengths and weaknesses that surfaced, additional resources and abilities that could be introduced to a given situation to influence optimal outcomes, and finally, how they met competencies and course objectives.

Scholarly Activities

Throughout the RN-to-BSN program, students are required to participate in scholarly activities outside of clinical practice or professional practice. Examples of scholarly activities include attending conferences, seminars, journal club, grand rounds, morbidity and mortality meetings, interdisciplinary committees, quality improvement committees, and any other opportunities available at your site, within your community, or nationally.

You are required to post one scholarly activity while you are in the BSN program, which should be documented by the end of this course. In addition to this submission, you are required to be involved and contribute to interdisciplinary initiatives on a regular basis.

In Topic 10, you will submit a summary report of your scholarly activity. You may use the “Scholarly Activity Summary” resource to help guide this assignment.

cultural competency

Dyer-Berenson, Ch. 1 & 2

1.In reference to Dyer-Barenson, describe the process to obtain cultural competency. Has this course helped you begin this process? What else do you need to do?

2. What is the difference between ethnicity and race,? What are primary and secondary characteristics of a culture?

Summary: The purpose of the weekly reflective journal exercises is to allow for analysis, synthesis and evaluation of nursing theory using guided questions. Reflection has been referred to as a process that happens internally, privately or in isolation (Hill & Watson, 2011).  Also a useful definition of reflection has been referred to as the examination of an issue of concern, as a consequence of experience, creating clarity and meaning in terms of self, and which results in a change of perspective ( Boyd & Fales, 1983).

book :

Dayer-Berenson, L. (2014). Cultural competencies for nurses: Impact on health and illness, 2nd edition. Sudbury, MA: Jones and Bartlett. ISBN: 1-978-1-4496-8807-3

research process

Unit 5 Discussion

Instructions

For the discussion this week, conduct research on the topic you have been working with since Unit 2. Then, in a well-developed  initial post, include the following:

  • A description of your research process
  • Three APA reference entries, each for a credible source related to your topic
  • Beneath each reference entry, include an annotation of the source

Finally, select one of the sources and provide a full evaluation of it in terms of the CRAAP criteria. That is, explain its currency, its relevance, its authority, its accuracy, and its purpose.

The three sources you select may be used, if you wish, in your final annotated bibliography that is due at the end of the unit.

Please be sure to validate your opinions and ideas with citations and references in APA format.

Please review post and response expectations.

Peer Response: Unit 5, Due Sunday by 11:59 pm CT

Unit 5 Discussion

Instructions

Respond meaningfully to at least one of your peers.

  • Ask a probing or clarifying question.
  • Share an insight from having read your colleague’s posting.
  • Offer, support, or challenge a position
  • Validate an idea with your own experience.

Please be sure to validate your opinions and ideas with citations and references in APA format.

Please review post and response expectations.

Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics effects on patients

Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics effects on patients

Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug movement throughout the body, which includes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of the drug determine how much drug will be at its sites of action at any given time, and are the major determinants of the time course over which drug responses take place. Absorption of a drug is influenced by the physical and chemical properties of the drug and by physiologic and anatomic factors at the absorption site. The drug-metabolizing capacity and its excretion in infants and older people are decreased and dosage may be carefully adjusted to prevent toxicity. As an advanced practice nurse, good knowledge on the pharmacodynamics (the study of the biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs on the body and the molecular mechanisms by which those effects are produced) and pharmacokinetics is essential to achieve the therapeutic objective.

A recent incident I remember is a 79-year-old lady, who came to the Emergency room with complaining tremors, fatigue, dizziness, and occasional chest discomfort started 45 minutes ago. The patient provides past medical history of hypertension, vertigo, and hypothyroidism and past surgical history of cervical laminectomy. The patient is allergic to penicillin, Lisinopril, Amlodipine, Ace inhibitors, and Hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are Heart rate 88/minute, BP 141/84, Respiratory rate 18 and SPO2 100% on room air.  On reviewing old records, this patient was presented to ED a few months ago for dizziness and was discharged with a diagnosis of vertigo. Patient further reports that her primary provider starts a new medication, Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic) 3 weeks ago for her blood pressure. Cardiac workup including EKG was initiated and EKG reading was normal. Laboratory results were significant for low sodium level of 131 (reference range 135 to 145 mEq/L), and blood glucose 160mg/dL. All other lab values were within normal limits.  Patient felt better after the infusion of a bolus of 1.5-liter Normal saline and was discharged home.

Modification of plan of care in this scenario include discontinuation or readjustment of the dose of Spironolactone, educate patient and family about the medication, its potential complications and discuss methods to avoid side effects and complications, educate about the importance of regular blood work to evaluate electrolytes  and advice to avoid high potassium diets and to encourage adequate hydration while on Spironolactone. In old age, renal function often declines result in a decrease in the excretion of drugs through kidneys. As a prescriber or an advanced practitioner, it is our responsibility to monitor the patient’s response for both positive effects and adverse effects to determine whether too much or too little medication has been administered as individual patient’s response to medication varies.

Reference

Rosenthal, L.D., & Burchum, J.R. (2018). Lehne’s pharmacotherapeutics for advanced practice providers.

St. Louis, MO: Elsevier

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (2017). Retrieved from

https://www.ismp.org/recommendations/error-prone-abbreviations-list

American Geriatrics Society (2019).  Updated AGS Beers Criteria for Potentially Inappropriate

Medication Use in Older Adults. Update Expert Panel. Retrieved from

https://class.content.laureate.net/cc74d598cd0208b6fb67b6926bd717f9.pdf (abey)