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effective communication in the personal relationship

1. Discuss the importance of effective communication in the personal relationship, the therapeutic relationship, and the relationship within the interprofessional health-care team.

2. What similarities and differences can you identify among the above interactions?

3. Explain the concept of congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication.

4. There are many pitfalls to electronic communication. Identify a situation in which an electronic form of communication may result in a miscommunication. What other method of communication would have been more effective?

5. How have you seen ISBAR used during your clinical experiences?

6- Develop a hand-off report for yourself. Include items that you believe are pertinent for safe and effective nursing care. Refer to the information in the chapter for creating this report form. Using the information from the chapter, determine the effectiveness of the system currently in use on your unit for communicating shift-to-shift reports.

7-Dr. Roberts comes into the nurses’ station demanding, “Where are Mr. Adams’s lab reports? I ordered these stat, and they’re not here! Who’s responsible for this patient?” How would you, as the nurse, respond?

8-Explain the concept of accountability in delegation. What are the legal ramifications of accountability in delegation?

9. Dennie and Elias arrive in the unit for the 7:00 p.m. to 7:00 a.m. shift. Both nurses completed orientation 4 weeks ago. They find that they will be the only two RNs on the floor that night. There is a census of 48 clients. The remaining staff consists of two NAPs/UAPs and one LPN. What are the responsibilities of the RN, NAP/UAP, and LPN? Can Dennie and Elias effectively delegate client care tasks and care safely for all 48 clients? Use the Delegation Tree to make your decisions.

10. Discuss the differences between direct delegation and indirect delegation.

1. You have to observe delegation procedures in your assigned unit:

A-What considerations does the RN take into account when delegating patient care?

2-You have to look at the unit census and prioritize the patient care:

A- Give the rationale for your choices.

3.Answer the following questions during your clinical experiences:

a. What specific tasks did your patients require that you might have been able to delegate?

b. How effective was your nurse/preceptor in delegating tasks to others?

c. How did your nurse/preceptor ensure that the tasks were completed safely and appropriately?

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Paper on Diabetes.

Based on the summary of research findings identified from the Evidence-Based Project—Paper on Diabetes that describes a new diagnostic tool or intervention for the treatment of diabetes in adults or children, complete the following components of this assignment:

Develop a PowerPoint presentation (a title slide, 6-12 slides, and a reference slide; no larger than 2 MB) that includes the following:

  1. A brief summary of the research conducted in the Evidence-Based Project – Paper on Diabetes.
  2. A descriptive and reflective discussion of how the new tool or intervention may be integrated into practice that is supported by sound research.

While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite, unless otherwise directed by your instructor. If so directed, refer to the Student Success Center for directions. Only Word documents can be submitted to LopesWrite.

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Identifying research components

WEEK 2/ PROJECT

Identifying research components. reviewing TWO articles (listed below) and completing the following tasks for each one:

Article Assignments

1-Bortz, A., Ashkenazi, T., & Melnikov, S. (2015). Spirituality as a predictive factor for signing an organ donor card.Journal of Nursing Scholarship, 47(1), 25-33. doi: 10.1111/jnu.12107

2-Dinkel, S., & Schmidt, K. (2015). Health education needs of incarcerated women. Journal of Nursing Scholarship, 46(4), 229-234. doi: 10.1111/jnu.12079

INSTRUCTIONS

Summarize each article utilizing the Week 2 research template.see attached please

· Identify and describe the problem, purpose, and hypothesis or research questions of each study.

· Analyze and discuss the significance of the research to nursing practice.

· Identify two details to support the research as qualitative or quantitative.

· IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIO………..

· NOTE: If a component is absent, student receives a zero for that component.

Cite all sources in APA format.

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PROBLEMS OF HYPERTENSION,

FOLLOW EVERY REQUIREMENTS..

I send my new Assignment, I also send you everything you need, you must guide yourself through the Scholarly Activity Summary to be able to perform the Assignment of 5 paragraphs, remember that it is a single activity.

Always all the projects you did were based on PROBLEMS OF HYPERTENSION,

Individual Success Plan (ISP), I send it to you ,if you need it in the last paragraph (Program Competencies Addressed) of the Scholarly Activity Summary

This section consists of a list of program competencies that were addressed in this scholarly activity. Please use the list from the ISP.

LET ME KNOW IF YOU NEED ANYTHING ELSE..THANK YOU

Details:

Throughout the RN-to-BSN program, students are required to participate in scholarly activities outside of clinical practice or professional practice. Examples of scholarly activities include attending conferences, seminars, journal club, grand rounds, morbidity and mortality meetings, interdisciplinary committees, quality improvement committees, and any other opportunities available at your site, within your community, or nationally.

You are required to post one scholarly activity while you are in the BSN program, which should be documented by the end of this course. In addition to this submission, you are required to be involved and contribute to interdisciplinary initiatives on a regular basis.

Submit, as the assignment, a summary report of the scholarly activity, including who, what, where, when and any relevant take-home points. Include the appropriate program competencies associated with the scholarly activity as well as future professional goals related to this activity.

You may use the “Scholarly Activity Summary” resource to help guide this assignment.

While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and in-text citations and references should be presented using APA documentation guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

You are not required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

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hydrogen peroxide

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

a)Oncotic pressure

b)Buffering

c)Net filtration

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

c)Capillary oncotic

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

a)Hypopolarization

b)Hyperexcitability

c)Depolarization

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

a)20:1

b)1:20

c)10:2

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

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Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

a)Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

b)Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

c)Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

d)Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

Question 24 (5 points)

Vaccines against viruses are created from:

Question 24 options:

a)Killed organisms or extracts of antigens

b)Live organisms weakened to produce antigens

c)Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified

d)Recombinant pathogenic protein

Question 25 (5 points)

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

Question 25 options:

a)Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b)Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c)Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells

d)Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

Question 26 (5 points)

Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:

Question 26 options:

a)Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.

b)The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.

c)Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.

d)The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.

Question 27 (5 points)

What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?

Question 27 options:

a)Infection

b)Ultraviolet damage

c)Pain

d)Erythema

Question 28 (5 points)

When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?

Question 28 options:

a)Age at the time of diagnosis

b)Participation in clinical trials

c)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center

d)Parental involvement in the treatment planning

Question 29 (5 points)

Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?

Question 29 options:

a)Pons

b)Midbrain

c)Cerebellum

d)Medulla oblongata

Question 30 (5 points)

The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?

Question 30 options:

a)Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)Spinal shock immediately after the injury

Question 31 (5 points)

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?

Question 31 options:

a)Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)Autonomic hyperreflexia

d)Retrograde hyperreflexia

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Question 32 (5 points)

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:

Question 32 options:

a)In larger veins

b)Near capillary sphincters

c)At branches of arteries

d)On the venous sinuses

Question 33 (5 points)

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:

Question 33 options:

a)A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus

d)A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors

Question 34 (5 points)

Graves disease develops from:

Question 34 options:

a)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

c)Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d)Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter

Question 35 (5 points)

Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:

Question 35 options:

a)High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b)Diminished levels of TRH

c)High levels of TSH

d)Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin

Question 36 (5 points)

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?

Question 36 options:

a)Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.

b)Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi

c)Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.

d)Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

Question 37 (5 points)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:

Question 37 options:

a)Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

b)The need for lispro instead of regular insulin

c)An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas

d)The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas

Question 38 (5 points)

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?

Question 38 options:

a)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

b)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

d)T cells

Question 39 (5 points)

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

Question 39 options:

a)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration

b)The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

c)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

d)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

Question 40 (5 points)

Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:

Question 40 options:

a)The Somogyi effect

b)The dawn phenomenon

c)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

d)Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

Question 41 (5 points)

Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells

Question 41 options:

a)Perimetrium

b)Endocervical canal

c)Myometrium

d)Vagina

Question 42 (5 points)

Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?

Question 42 options:

a)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina

b)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus

c)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus

d)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina

Question 43 (5 points)

Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

Question 43 options:

a)Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency

b)Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia

c)Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia

d)Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia

Question 44 (5 points)

In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?

Question 44 options:

a)Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes

b)Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

c)Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

d)Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes

Question 45 (5 points)

Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Question 45 options:

a)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.

b)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.

c)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.

d)Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.

Question 46 (5 points)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:

Question 46 options:

a)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative

b)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive

c)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood

d)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood

Question 47 (5 points)

When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?

Question 47 options:

a)Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.

b)Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.

c)The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.

d)The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.

Question 48 (5 points)

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Question 48 options:

a)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction

b)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia

c)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium

Question 49 (5 points)

What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?

Question 49 options:

a)Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.

b)Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.

c)The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.

d)Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.

Question 50 (5 points)

What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?

Question 50 options:

a)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption

b)Bone marrow function depression

c)Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias

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educational plan

Otitis Externa The exam for an afebrile, 13-year-old returning home from a camp with fresh water swimming reveals an edematous right ear canal with whitish-green debris in the canal. The tympanic membrane is pearly white with light reflex present. The tragus is painful on manipulation.

The diagnosis is otitis externa. Find one related evidence-based article from any College Library (not older than three years); provide the APA citation along with an embedded link to the article for your peers to access. In addition, answer the following questions and provide rationale for all answers.

Your post should consist of three well-developed paragraphs (500–700 words) using APA formatting, integrating three evidence-based resources to include clinical practice guidelines as well as the course textbook.

· What organism/s would you be considering for treatment? Provide details about the organism, where it is typically found, and any issues regarding resistance.

· How do you plan to treat the otitis externa? Choose two anti-infective agents. Provide rationale for your treatment and selection of pharmacological agents. Include a pain management plan. Your rationale should include a thorough write-up of the kinetics/dynamics, side effects, interactions, contraindications, and dosing for the pediatric population.

· What is the educational plan?

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transitioning to practice

. Your introduction positions the reader with a clear & explicit understanding of the task with a logical flow between paragraphs. The conclusion is decisive and relates clearly and specifically to the task showing originality and inspired thinking. No presentation errors.   INTRO- 100 AND CONCLUSION – 100 WORDS

2.

Discuss significance for the GRN .( Discusses the significance of your chosen strategy(MENTORING) in relation to transitioning to practice as a GRN with insight and comprehensive understanding….300 WORDS …WITH HIGH QUALITY SCHOLARLY JOURAL ARTICLES))

The writing need to be well supported by accurately referenced quality, highly relevant, and well-focused literature that exactly addressed the task.

3..

Critically discuss in relation to work life balance and resilience (400 words) ..

(Your critical discussion displays evidence based convincing clarity and persuasive reasoning when considering the implications of the strategy on work-life balance and developing resilience for the GRN).

4..

Advocate for realistic actions
Your argument as to how your SMART goals enable realistic action to achieve work-life balance and developing resilience is insightful and explicit and relates specifically to the GRN. The writing is informed by a wide range of literature that is highly valid, defining and authoritative. 300 WORDS

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Developing a Culture of Evidence-Based Practice

Discussion: Developing a Culture of Evidence-Based Practice

As your EBP skills grow, you may be called upon to share your expertise with others. While EBP practice is often conducted with unique outcomes in mind, EBP practitioners who share their results can both add to the general body of knowledge and serve as an advocate for the application of EBP.

In this Discussion, you will explore strategies for disseminating EBP within your organization, community, or industry.

To Prepare:

· Review the Resources and reflect on the various strategies presented throughout the course that may be helpful in disseminating effective and widely cited EBP.

o This may include: unit-level or organizational-level presentations, poster presentations, and podium presentations at organizational, local, regional, state, and national levels, as well as publication in peer-reviewed journals.

· Reflect on which type of dissemination strategy you might use to communicate EBP.

Post at least two dissemination strategies you would be most inclined to use and explain why. Explain which dissemination strategies you would be least inclined to use and explain why. Identify at least two barriers you might encounter when using the dissemination strategies you are most inclined to use. Be specific and provide examples. Explain how you might overcome the barriers you identified.

 

Assignment: Evidence-Based Capstone Project, Part 6: Disseminating Results

The dissemination of EBP results serves multiple important roles. Sharing results makes the case for your decisions. It also adds to the body of knowledge, which creates opportunities for future practitioners. By presenting results, you also become an advocate for EBP, creating a culture within your organization or beyond that informs, educates, and promotes the effective use of EBP.

To Prepare:

· Review the final PowerPoint presentation you submitted in Module 5, and make any necessary changes based on the feedback you have received and on lessons you have learned throughout the course.

· Consider the best method of disseminating the results of your presentation to an audience.

To Complete:

Create a 5-minute, 5- to 6-slide narrated PowerPoint presentation of your Evidence-Based Project.

· Be sure to incorporate any feedback or changes from your presentation submission in Module 5.

· Explain how you would disseminate the results of your project to an audience. Provide a rationale for why you selected this dissemination strategy.

Submit Part 6, your revised PowerPoint presentation of your Evidence-Based Project.

Resources to use below:

Melnyk, B. M., & Fineout-Overholt, E. (2018). Evidence-based practice in nursing & healthcare: A guide to best practice (4th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

  • Chapter 10, “The Role of      Outcomes on Evidence-based Quality Improvement and enhancing and      Evaluating Practice Changes” (pp. 293–312)
  • Chapter 12, “Leadership      Strategies for Creating and Sustaining Evidence-based Practice      Organizations” (pp. 328–343)
  • Chapter 14, “Models to Guide Implementation      and Sustainability of Evidence-based Practice” (pp. 378–427)

Gallagher-Ford, L., Fineout-Overholt, E., Melnyk, B. M., & Stillwell, S. B. (2011). Evidence-based practice, step by step: Implementing an evidence-based practice change. American Journal of Nursing, 111(3), 54–60. doi:10.1097/10.1097/01.NAJ.0000395243.14347.7e. Retrieved from https://journals.lww.com/ajnonline/Fulltext/2011/03000/Evidence_Based_Practice,_Step_by_Step_.31.aspx 

Newhouse, R. P., Dearholt, S., Poe, S., Pugh, L. C., & White, K. M. (2007). Organizational change strategies for evidence-based practice. Journal of Nursing Administration, 37(12), 552–557. doi:0.1097/01.NNA.0000302384.91366.8f. Retrieved from http://downloads.lww.com/wolterskluwer_vitalstream_com/journal_library/nna_00020443_2007_37_12_552.pdf

Melnyk, B. M. (2012). Achieving a high-reliability organization through implementation of the ARCC model for systemwide sustainability of evidence-based practice. Nursing Administration Quarterly, 36(2), 127–135. doi:10.1097/NAQ.0b013e318249fb6a

Melnyk, B. M., Fineout-Overholt, E., Gallagher-Ford, L., & Stillwell, S. B. (2011). Evidence-based practice, step by step: Sustaining evidence-based practice through organizational policies and an innovative model. American Journal of Nursing, 111(9), 57–60. doi:10.1097/01.NAJ.0000405063.97774.0e. Retrieved from https://www.nursingcenter.com/nursingcenter_redesign/media/EBP/AJNseries/Sustaining.pdf

Melnyk, B. M., Fineout-Overholt, E., Giggleman, M., & Choy, K. (2017). A test of the ARCC© model improves implementation of evidence-based practice, healthcare culture, and patient outcomes. Worldviews on Evidence-Based Nursing, 14(1), 5–9. doi:10.1111/wvn.12188. Retrieved from https://sigmapubs.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1111/wvn.12188

Melnyk, B. M., Fineout-Overholt, E., Gallagher-Ford, L., & Stillwell, S. B. (2011). Evidence-based practice, step by step: Sustaining evidence-based practice through organizational policies and an innovative model. American Journal of Nursing, 111(9), 57–60. doi:10.1097/01.NAJ.0000405063.97774.0e. Retrieved from https://journals.lww.com/ajnonline/Fulltext/2011/09000/Evidence_Based_Practice,_Step_by_Step__Sustaining.27.aspx

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Urgent Rush time sensitive

Urgent Rush time sensitive

Note to writer from me: this is obviously going to have to be made up/ fiction like I/you actually performed this exercise. After studying the 2 PDF files, start with assignment please. Below in Red is the assignmentneeded to be completed.

 

(the 2 PDF files are attached)

 

After reading the article on Touch and NeuroFasia Processing (NFP) and viewing the PowerPoint Presentation on how to do NFP, try out NFP. Here are the guidelines:

 

Treat yourself with NFP in one of 2 ways:

 

Method 1: (appox. 10 hours) Choose an organ to treat. If for example you have a cough you could choose your anterior lungs. Liver is always a good choice; we could all use detoxification of our liver. Put one hand on that organ and your second hand on the first process center and hold it for at least 20-30 minutes. Then keep you first hand on the chosen organ and put second hand on the next process center and hold, continue though all process centers. You may do this over a period of days or weeks. A chart can be printed to help you keep track.

 

Method 2: This more efficient and only takes one hour, but requires you have 6-10 volunteers. You lie on a table and allow your volunteers to put their hands on each process center. Therefore, all process centers are connected to all process centers at the same time. Hold for one hour. Your volunteers can reposition during the hour. This way allows you to treat all organs and process centers at the same time.

 

Treat someone else using NFP.

 

After you have experienced NFP either as the person being treated or as the person giving treatment, report on the following:  *Must be at least 250 – 300 words; include 1-2 in-text citations and references.

-How did you feel about this assignment?

-If you found volunteers to either help in your treatment or to be treated by you, how did you find them?

-Why did you chose to do this assignment the way you did it?

-Please respond to at least 2 peers. I will be doing this after the submission of the discussion that you have done.

Peer responses must be 150-200 words each.

 

Manual therapies include, but are not limited to, chiropractic therapy, massage therapies, osteopathy, Cranial Sacral therapy, and techniques done by physical therapists and other practitioners; for example, Strain Counter Strain, Myofasia Release, Applied Kinesiology, Feldenkrais, Alexander Technique, Reflexology, and Neuro Fasia Processing.

 

Manual therapies manipulate bone and soft tissue to promote healing. Manipulation as a form of treatment is an ancient healing art that has been shared across time by various cultures.

 

Manipulation decreases pressure in the blood vessels and nerves and improves function of the manipulated area. Each type of manipulation emphasis a part of the body.

 

Manipulation is currently categorized into mechanical, neurological, and physiological. For example chiropractic care is mechanical and manipulates the spine to produce effects on the nervous system. Massage therapy is also mechanical and emphasizes muscle. Cranial Sacral is neurological and manipulates the head and spinal cord. Myofacial release, Neuro Fasia Processing (NFP), and other advanced manual therapies work on soft tissue and physiological function.

 

Osteopathic Doctors (DOs) are license doctors and can prescribe medication. DOs take a holistic and manipulation approach to treatment. They, like all manual therapists, support the fact that if the body is structurally sound it can and will accomplish healing.

 

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theories and principles of nursing

Purpose

  • CO 1 – Utilize prior knowledge of theories and principles of nursing and related disciplines to explain expected client behaviors, while differentiating between normal findings, variations, and abnormalities. (PO 1)
  • CO 5 – Explore the professional responsibilities involved in conducting a comprehensive health assessment and provide appropriate documentation. (PO 6)

The Assignment

The nursing process is utilized in a variety of nursing roles and health care settings. Whether you are working in direct patient care, telehealth, or in a leadership role – the basic model is the same! Take this opportunity to share how the nursing process is utilized in your own practice settings! Hint: Your assigned readings will be helpful in formulating your answers.

Please answer the following question in your initial post:

Describe how you apply the first step (assessment) of the nursing process in your current practice setting. If you are not currently practicing as an RN, you may use an example from a prior clinical or work experience. Include the following information:

  • Briefly describe your practice setting and the typical patient population.
  • Provide examples of key subjective and objective data points you collect.
  • Describe how you document your findings. Is there technology involved?
  • Describe your process of data analysis. What is the end result of this process? (i.e., Do you formulate nursing diagnoses and care plans, collaborate with others and/or make referrals?)

Remember to use and credit the textbook or lesson, as well as an outside scholarly source, for full credit.

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