CPT Medical Coding Assigment

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1.   Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule? 

    

   A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files.

   B. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient admission.

   C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to third parties.

   D. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians.

2.   A tethered health record allows patients to 

    

   A. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.

   B. use a secure portal to access their own records.

   C. restructure insurance copayments.

   D. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses.

3.   A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. S72.003A

   B. S72.001A

   C. S49.006A

   D. S72.009A

4.   Which one of the following structures is part of the male secondary genitalia? 

    

   A. Gonads

   B. Urethra

   C. Testes

   D. Vulva

5.   What is the full code description for 25515? 

    

   A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of triangular fibrocartilage complex

   B. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed

   C. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation

   D. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation

6.   Another name for XXY syndrome is 

    

   A. Turner’s syndrome.

   B. Huntington’s chorea.

   C. Cooley’s anemia.

   D. Klinefelter syndrome.

7.   The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called the 

    

   A. cochlea.

   B. stapes.

   C. malleus.

   D. incus.

 

8.   Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system. 

    

   A. circulatory

   B. digestive

   C. endocrine

   D. sensory

9.   Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? 

    

   A. It’s located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart.

   B. It’s found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.

   C. It’s susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie’s disease.

   D. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body.

10.   A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How is this coded? 

    

   A. 55520

   B. 52630

   C. 51702

   D. 52601

11.   What is the CPT code for simple drainage of a finger abscess? 

    

   A. 26010

   B. 26020

   C. 26034

   D. 26011

12.   Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes 

    

   A. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.

   B. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.

   C. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.

   D. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.

13.   What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial nephritis? 

    

   A. Z02.6

   B. B96.2

   C. L50.0

   D. N10

14.   An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient’s artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an 

    

   A. aneurysm.

   B. cyst.

   C. mesenteric venous thrombosis.

   D. benign tumor.

15.   What is Medicare Part D? 

    

   A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries

   B. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents

   C. Add-on coverage for dental procedures

   D. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies approved by Medicare

16.   The suffix –stasis means 

    

   A. flow.

   B. stopping and controlling.

   C. breakdown.

   D. kinetic.

17.   The outcome of delivery code should be 

    

   A. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.

   B. assigned to the newborn record only.

   C. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.

   D. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs.

18.   A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99292, 99292, 99293

   B. 99291, 99291

   C. 99291, 99292

   D. 99292, 99293

19.   The root word OBSTETR/O means 

    

   A. cesarean.

   B. pregnancy.

   C. birth.

   D. midwife.

20.   Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in 

    

   A. Excel.

   B. Lotus 1-2-3.

   C. PowerPoint.

   D. Word.

21.   A patient undergoes an appendectomy and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier should be assigned to the CPT code? 

    

   A. -51

   B. -AA

   C. -76

   D. -78

22.   The concept of meaningful use pertains to 

    

   A. categorization of patient information.

   B. medical office protocol and document organization.

   C. resource management in the inpatient setting.

   D. electronic health record implementation.

23.   The study of disease is called 

    

   A. pathology.

   B. urology.

   C. physiology.

   D. neurology.

24.   Modifier -23 indicates that 

    

   A. a procedure was performed bilaterally.

   B. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia.

   C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure.

   D. two surgeons performed a procedure.

25.   Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it may 

    

   A. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being diagnosed with the condition.

   B. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical records.

   C. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.

   D. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory surgery centers.

26.   Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is called 

    

   A. protection.

   B. secured loss.

   C. copayment.

   D. indemnity.

27.   Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which are often 

    

   A. used primarily by chiropractors.

   B. used to describe surgical incisions.

   C. referenced horizontally.

   D. paired in opposites.

28.   The code for an ESWL would be found in the 

    

   A. Digestive System of CPT.

   B. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT.

   C. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS.

   D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.

29.   What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy? 

    

   A. 33015

   B. 33050

   C. 33026

   D. 33210

30.   HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed on the 

    

   A. upper left eyelid.

   B. upper right eyelid.

   C. lower left eyelid.

   D. lower right eyelid.

31.   Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system. 

    

   A. UCR

   B. capitation

   C. retrospective payment

   D. prospective payment

32.   What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law? 

    

   A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s discretion.

   B. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding arbitration.

   C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law.

   D. State laws overrule federal law.

33.   The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-paid basis is called 

    

   A. pre-paid care.

   B. managed care.

   C. fee-for-service.

   D. capitation.

34.   The suffix -sis means 

    

   A. process.

   B. drooping.

   C. inflammation.

   D. condition.

35.   A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99215, M19.011, R13.10

   B. 99203, J06.9, R59.0

   C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229

   D. 99202, D63.1, J45.909

36.   A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned? 

    

   A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4

   B. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4

   C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2

   D. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5

37.   A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire pregnancy, from beginning to end, is providing 

    

   A. comprehensive prenatal management.

   B. routine global obstetric care.

   C. puerperal obstetric care.

   D. antenatal global supervision.

38.   A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called 

    

   A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade.

   B. pancreatonia.

   C. pancreatolysis.

   D. pancreatitis.

39.   The covering on the brain and spinal cord in the dorsal cavity is called the 

    

   A. sheath.

   B. peritoneum.

   C. ganglia.

   D. meninges.

40.   The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as 

    

   A. health care administrators.

   B. protected personnel.

   C. provisional health care data collectors.

   D. covered entities.

41.   The retention period is the amount of time that 

    

   A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets.

   B. medications must be kept in the medical office.

   C. records must be kept.

   D. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation.

42.   A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for 

    

   A. invasion of privacy.

   B. undue harm and fraud.

   C. malice.

   D. malfeasance.

43.   Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of 

    

   A. endoplasmic reticulum.

   B. endocrine gland cells.

   C. extracellular matrix.

   D. columnar epithelial cells.

44.   A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded? 

    

   A. 38220

   B. 36575

   C. 35092

   D. 37328

45.   The vitreous humor can be found in the 

    

   A. eye.

   B. nose.

   C. tongue.

   D. ear.

46.   The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called 

    

   A. microbiology.

   B. histopathology.

   C. immunology.

   D. cytopathology.

47.   Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is called 

    

   A. selective catheter placement.

   B. brachiocephalic manipulation.

   C. third order placement.

   D. nonselective catheter placement.

48.   A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. L74.2

   B. L70.0

   C. L72.3

   D. L73.1

49.   Members of the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired members and their families qualify for 

    

   A. OIG Recovery.

   B. Medicaid.

   C. Medicare.

   D. TRICARE.

50.   A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with memory disturbance after being accidentally exposed to lead paint. What ICD-10-CM codes should be assigned? 

    

   A. T42.4X1A, R40.0

   B. T23.009A, R23.8

   C. T56.0X1A, R41.3

   D. T57.0X1A, R10.9

51.   Health care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may 

    

   A. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services.

   B. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General.

   C. be blacklisted according to geographic location.

   D. face financial penalties or, in some cases, imprisonment.

52.   A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis? 

    

   A. The anesthesia administration

   B. The allergy code

   C. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed

   D. The observation code

53.   The root word ENTER/O means 

    

   A. secretion.

   B. intestine.

   C. stomach.

   D. tooth.

54.   When coding burns, coders should 

    

   A. assign separate codes for each burn site.

   B. assign the code for chronic burns.

   C. classify all burns as acute burns.

   D. assign the code for third-degree burns.

55.   Which of the following forms is used to bill outpatient charges? 

    

   A. CMS-1500 or UCF-1500.

   B. AMA-14 or UCF-1250

   C. HCFA-1400 or CMS-1540

   D. HCFA-1350 or CMS-650

56.   A significant, separately identifiable E/M service performed by the same physician in conjunction with another service performed on the same day would be reported using what modifier? 

    

   A. -TC

   B. -47

   C. -90

   D. -25

57.   Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient? 

    

   A. P5

   B. P1

   C. P4

   D. P3

58.   Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called the 

    

   A. minimum necessary standard.

   B. information provision standard.

   C. privacy management statute.

   D. health information guardianship guideline.

59.   Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range? 

    

   A. 57000–57426

   B. 57000–57010

   C. 57150–57180

   D. 56800–56810

60.   A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example of 

    

   A. speculation.

   B. hearsay.

   C. a direct quote.

   D. cross-examination.

61.   A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger while administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must happen? 

    

   A. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be exposed to the same occupational hazard.

   B. The employee should contact the proper authorities.

   C. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse’s medical record for the remainder of her employment plus an additional 30 years.

   D. The guidelines for OSHA should be included in the employment file.

62.   Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is 

    

   A. healthcare vendors.

   B. insurance administrators.

   C. covered entities.

   D. business associates.

63.   A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned? 

    

   A. A4751

   B. A4918 × 2

   C. A4751 × 2

   D. A4918

 

64.   The anatomical location of the calyx is the 

    

   A. arm.

   B. kidney.

   C. spine.

   D. brain.

65.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 62270, G74.3

   B. 62270, G44.1

   C. 62141, G46.8

   D. 62272, G46.9

66.   A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned? 

    

   A. B4278

   B. B4125

   C. B4072

   D. B4034

67.   To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities? 

    

   A. ICD-7 provisional safeguards

   B. Immunization and injection safeguards

   C. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards

   D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards

68.   A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned? 

    

   A. E0976

   B. E0562

   C. E4752

   D. E0607

69.   Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows 

    

   A. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess.

   B. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff.

   C. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions.

   D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.

70.   A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under 

    

   A. Medicare Part B.

   B. Medicare Part A.

   C. Medicare Part D.

   D. Medicare Part C.

71.   Another term for disease evolution is 

    

   A. remission.

   B. pathogenesis.

   C. morphology.

   D. exacerbation.

72.   In relation to HIPAA regulations regarding the manner in which information can be disclosed, which of the following statements is true? 

    

   A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when the patient is unable to testify in a court proceeding.

   B. Protected health information may never be disclosed.

   C. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or administrative proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or administrative tribunal.

   D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a deposition.

73.   The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of 

    

   A. ambulatory payment surgery centers.

   B. prospective payment organizations.

   C. retrospective payment organizations.

   D. health maintenance organizations.

74.   Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer? 

    

   A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

   B. Meniscectomy

   C. Vasoconstriction

   D. Arthroscopy

75.   What diagnosis code would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy? 

    

   A. E11.21

   B. E11.01

   C. E11.22

   D. E11.9

76.   Another name for Medicare Advantage is 

    

   A. Medicare Part A.

   B. Medicare Part C.

   C. Medicare Part B.

   D. Medicare Part D.

77.   The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT? 

    

   A. 33200–33205

   B. 33437–33537

   C. 33202–33273

   D. 33533–33799

78.   A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919

   B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909

   C. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929

   D. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909

79.   What is considered to be protected health information (PHI)? 

    

   A. Any health information that can identify the individual to whom it refers

   B. Records pertaining to ancestry

   C. Statistical data compiled for research purposes only

   D. Census data

 

80.   In what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found? 

    

   A. 88515–88598

   B. 88300–88309

   C. 88400–80499

   D. 88000–80299

 

81.   The federal law that requires a patient’s written consent prior to disclosure of certain medical information by government agencies is called the 

    

   A. Health Care Amendment of 1976.

   B. Privacy Act of 1974.

   C. Health Information Law of 2002.

   D. Medical Consent Act of 1965.

82.   Data stored in a health care facility must 

    

   A. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.

   B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures.

   C. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage.

   D. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely.

83.   Under HIPAA, health care facilities must 

    

   A. maintain a clean, safe working environment.

   B. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.

   C. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a three-month timeframe.

   D. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for mandatory services.

84.   What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis? 

    

   A. 57135

   B. 57859

   C. 57600

   D. 57020

85.   A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is most likely a 

    

   A. tranquilizer.

   B. vasoconstrictor.

   C. cardiotonic.

   D. cardiogenic.

86.   If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can 

    

   A. complete employee paperwork.

   B. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.

   C. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records.

   D. also fulfill requests for prescription data.

87.   According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage? 

    

   A. $34.5741

   B. $32.4726

   C. $28.8457

   D. $36.0666

88.   According to HIPAA, a patient’s information may be released for 

    

   A. determining premiums based on a patient’s past medical history.

   B. paternity testing.

   C. research.

   D. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.

89.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. A07.21

   B. A02.21

   C. A05.26

   D. A23.24

90.   Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis? 

    

   A. Metatarsal

   B. Tibia

   C. Septum

   D. Diaphragm

91.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 76775-TC, N15

   B. 71010-26, B12

   C. 76775-26, N10

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1.   Which one of the following requirements is outlined in the guidelines established in HIPAA’s Privacy Rule? 

    

   A. Hospital administrators must encrypt data within older data files.

   B. Managers must secure medical records immediately following patient admission.

   C. Patients must receive notice if their information will be used or disclosed to third parties.

   D. Physicians must not disclose patient information to consulting physicians.

2.   A tethered health record allows patients to 

    

   A. amend the diagnoses listed in the health record.

   B. use a secure portal to access their own records.

   C. restructure insurance copayments.

   D. compare their health records to the records of patients with similar diagnoses.

3.   A patient sustains a fracture of the femur while playing football in a nearby park. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. S72.003A

   B. S72.001A

   C. S49.006A

   D. S72.009A

4.   Which one of the following structures is part of the male secondary genitalia? 

    

   A. Gonads

   B. Urethra

   C. Testes

   D. Vulva

5.   What is the full code description for 25515? 

    

   A. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed, and open treatment of distal radioulnar joint dislocation (Galeazzi fracture/dislocation), includes internal fixation, when performed, includes repair of triangular fibrocartilage complex

   B. Open treatment of radial shaft fracture, includes internal fixation, when performed

   C. Closed treatment of radial shaft fracture; without manipulation

   D. Closed treatment of ulnar shaft fracture; without manipulation

6.   Another name for XXY syndrome is 

    

   A. Turner’s syndrome.

   B. Huntington’s chorea.

   C. Cooley’s anemia.

   D. Klinefelter syndrome.

7.   The hammer-shaped bone in the middle ear is called the 

    

   A. cochlea.

   B. stapes.

   C. malleus.

   D. incus.

 

8.   Codes beginning with the letter K are related to the _______ system. 

    

   A. circulatory

   B. digestive

   C. endocrine

   D. sensory

9.   Which of the following statements is true of the olfactory nerve? 

    

   A. It’s located in the mitral valve and helps to circulate blood throughout the heart.

   B. It’s found in the nose and allows the senses to detect and distinguish odors.

   C. It’s susceptible to erosion due to Peyronie’s disease.

   D. It conveys the fluid from lymph glands to other areas of the body.

10.   A patient has a Foley catheter inserted prior to a planned surgical procedure. How is this coded? 

    

   A. 55520

   B. 52630

   C. 51702

   D. 52601

11.   What is the CPT code for simple drainage of a finger abscess? 

    

   A. 26010

   B. 26020

   C. 26034

   D. 26011

12.   Usually, a comprehensive EHR includes 

    

   A. secure standalone cluster controllers for hospitals in rural environments.

   B. software, hardware, implementation, and future program upgrades.

   C. coaxial cable connections between mainframe servers only.

   D. customizable XHRLT processes for ambulatory surgery centers.

13.   What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned for a patient with acute tubule-interstitial nephritis? 

    

   A. Z02.6

   B. B96.2

   C. L50.0

   D. N10

14.   An echocardiogram shows that the wall of a patient’s artery has dilated. The dilation has resulted in a saclike swelling. This swelling is called a/an 

    

   A. aneurysm.

   B. cyst.

   C. mesenteric venous thrombosis.

   D. benign tumor.

15.   What is Medicare Part D? 

    

   A. The component of Medicare Part A that covers outpatient surgeries

   B. Supplemental coverage for war veterans and their dependents

   C. Add-on coverage for dental procedures

   D. Add-on coverage for prescription drugs provided through insurance companies approved by Medicare

16.   The suffix –stasis means 

    

   A. flow.

   B. stopping and controlling.

   C. breakdown.

   D. kinetic.

17.   The outcome of delivery code should be 

    

   A. omitted from the maternal record for stillborn delivery.

   B. assigned to the newborn record only.

   C. assigned to both the maternal and newborn records.

   D. assigned to the maternal record when a delivery occurs.

18.   A patient who was involved in a motor vehicle accident is taken to the hospital by ambulance and admitted to the hospital in critical care. The physician sees the patient for 74 minutes in critical care. The physician leaves to attend to other patients in the ICU and the NICU of the same hospital. Five hours later, the physician returns to the patient and continues to treat the patient in critical care for an additional 30 minutes. The patient spends a total of 104 minutes in critical care. What codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99292, 99292, 99293

   B. 99291, 99291

   C. 99291, 99292

   D. 99292, 99293

19.   The root word OBSTETR/O means 

    

   A. cesarean.

   B. pregnancy.

   C. birth.

   D. midwife.

20.   Coders can use the Microsoft Office suite to create spreadsheets in 

    

   A. Excel.

   B. Lotus 1-2-3.

   C. PowerPoint.

   D. Word.

21.   A patient undergoes an appendectomy and later returns to the operating room for a related procedure the same day. Which modifier should be assigned to the CPT code? 

    

   A. -51

   B. -AA

   C. -76

   D. -78

22.   The concept of meaningful use pertains to 

    

   A. categorization of patient information.

   B. medical office protocol and document organization.

   C. resource management in the inpatient setting.

   D. electronic health record implementation.

23.   The study of disease is called 

    

   A. pathology.

   B. urology.

   C. physiology.

   D. neurology.

24.   Modifier -23 indicates that 

    

   A. a procedure was performed bilaterally.

   B. the patient received general anesthesia for a procedure that would ordinarily be performed with local or no anesthesia.

   C. a physician reviewed and interpreted a radiology procedure.

   D. two surgeons performed a procedure.

25.   Releasing genetic information is forbidden under the terms of HIPAA because it may 

    

   A. indicate susceptibility to a future illness, without the patient actually being diagnosed with the condition.

   B. allow immediate family members to have access to a patient’s medical records.

   C. not be successfully transmitted to all health care facilities.

   D. require physicians to fulfill contractual obligations for treatments provided in ambulatory surgery centers.

26.   Provision of security against a hurt, loss, or damage with specific cash payments is called 

    

   A. protection.

   B. secured loss.

   C. copayment.

   D. indemnity.

27.   Physicians typically refer to anatomical locations using directional terms, which are often 

    

   A. used primarily by chiropractors.

   B. used to describe surgical incisions.

   C. referenced horizontally.

   D. paired in opposites.

28.   The code for an ESWL would be found in the 

    

   A. Digestive System of CPT.

   B. Urinary and Male Genital Systems of CPT.

   C. Chemotherapy section of HCPCS.

   D. Cardiovascular System of CPT.

29.   What code would be assigned for a tube pericardiostomy? 

    

   A. 33015

   B. 33050

   C. 33026

   D. 33210

30.   HCPCS modifier –E2 indicates that the patient had a surgical procedure performed on the 

    

   A. upper left eyelid.

   B. upper right eyelid.

   C. lower left eyelid.

   D. lower right eyelid.

31.   Providers that receive reimbursement after health care services have been provided are being compensated under the _______ system. 

    

   A. UCR

   B. capitation

   C. retrospective payment

   D. prospective payment

32.   What happens when HIPAA rules conflict with state law? 

    

   A. The interpretation of HIPAA rules is left to the physician’s discretion.

   B. The Supreme Court’s decision becomes final in binding arbitration.

   C. Conflicting state rules are overridden by federal law.

   D. State laws overrule federal law.

33.   The method that physicians use to bill for each service or visit individually rather than on a pre-paid basis is called 

    

   A. pre-paid care.

   B. managed care.

   C. fee-for-service.

   D. capitation.

34.   The suffix -sis means 

    

   A. process.

   B. drooping.

   C. inflammation.

   D. condition.

35.   A new patient is seen in a clinic for complaints of shortness of breath, fever, difficulty swallowing, runny nose, and cough. The physician performs a detailed history, detailed examination, and medical decision making of low complexity. The physician also obtains a chest x-ray and lab workup. Based on the results of the diagnostic tests, the physician renders a diagnosis of upper respiratory tract infection and lymphadenopathy. What ICD-10 and CPT codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99215, M19.011, R13.10

   B. 99203, J06.9, R59.0

   C. 99213, R06.82, F10.229

   D. 99202, D63.1, J45.909

36.   A physician is called to the intensive care unit for a patient with second-degree burns sustained on 55% of his body while cooking in the kitchen where he works. The physician sees the patient in the critical care unit for two hours, leaves the unit, and returns later the same day to provide an additional hour of critical care. What ICD-10-CM and CPT codes would be assigned? 

    

   A. L91.8, 99291 × 2, 99292 × 4

   B. T31.50, 99291, 99292 × 4

   C. Z30.09, 99293, 99294 × 2

   D. R53.81, 99291, 99293 × 5

37.   A physician who cares for a patient throughout an entire pregnancy, from beginning to end, is providing 

    

   A. comprehensive prenatal management.

   B. routine global obstetric care.

   C. puerperal obstetric care.

   D. antenatal global supervision.

38.   A patient is seen in the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. It’s determined that the patient is experiencing inflammation of the pancreas, which is also called 

    

   A. pancreaticoduodonal arcade.

   B. pancreatonia.

   C. pancreatolysis.

   D. pancreatitis.

39.   The covering on the brain and spinal cord in the dorsal cavity is called the 

    

   A. sheath.

   B. peritoneum.

   C. ganglia.

   D. meninges.

40.   The regulations in HIPAA apply to three groups of individual and corporate entities, each involved in electronic medical records transfer. These groups are collectively referred to as 

    

   A. health care administrators.

   B. protected personnel.

   C. provisional health care data collectors.

   D. covered entities.

41.   The retention period is the amount of time that 

    

   A. insurance billing documents must be retained in filing cabinets.

   B. medications must be kept in the medical office.

   C. records must be kept.

   D. HIM employee files must be retained upon termination or resignation.

42.   A physician has a meeting with a pharmaceutical sales representative. During the course of the conversation, the physician reveals the diagnosis and past family, medical, and social history of a patient currently being treated with one of the medications that the sales representative is selling. In this situation, the doctor could be sued for 

    

   A. invasion of privacy.

   B. undue harm and fraud.

   C. malice.

   D. malfeasance.

43.   Epithelial tissue that secretes its products directly into the bloodstream is made of 

    

   A. endoplasmic reticulum.

   B. endocrine gland cells.

   C. extracellular matrix.

   D. columnar epithelial cells.

44.   A physician obtains cells from the bone marrow cavity using a needle and a syringe. How would this procedure be coded? 

    

   A. 38220

   B. 36575

   C. 35092

   D. 37328

45.   The vitreous humor can be found in the 

    

   A. eye.

   B. nose.

   C. tongue.

   D. ear.

46.   The study of tissue disease using macroscopic or microscopic analysis is called 

    

   A. microbiology.

   B. histopathology.

   C. immunology.

   D. cytopathology.

47.   Placing a catheter into the aorta or directly into an artery or vein is called 

    

   A. selective catheter placement.

   B. brachiocephalic manipulation.

   C. third order placement.

   D. nonselective catheter placement.

48.   A patient is diagnosed with acne. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. L74.2

   B. L70.0

   C. L72.3

   D. L73.1

49.   Members of the uniformed services, their families and survivors, and retired members and their families qualify for 

    

   A. OIG Recovery.

   B. Medicaid.

   C. Medicare.

   D. TRICARE.

50.   A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department with memory disturbance after being accidentally exposed to lead paint. What ICD-10-CM codes should be assigned? 

    

   A. T42.4X1A, R40.0

   B. T23.009A, R23.8

   C. T56.0X1A, R41.3

   D. T57.0X1A, R10.9

51.   Health care practitioners who submit fraudulent bills to increase reimbursement may 

    

   A. be listed in the Coding Directory of Fraudulent Billing published annually by the Department of Health and Human Services.

   B. be reported to the Office of the Attorney General.

   C. be blacklisted according to geographic location.

   D. face financial penalties or, in some cases, imprisonment.

52.   A patient comes to the ambulatory surgery center for a fusion of the cervical spine. Prior to the beginning of the surgery, the patient suffers an allergic reaction to the anesthesia shortly after it’s administered. Because of this reaction, the surgery is not performed. What code would be assigned as the first-listed diagnosis? 

    

   A. The anesthesia administration

   B. The allergy code

   C. The reason that the surgery was scheduled to be performed

   D. The observation code

53.   The root word ENTER/O means 

    

   A. secretion.

   B. intestine.

   C. stomach.

   D. tooth.

54.   When coding burns, coders should 

    

   A. assign separate codes for each burn site.

   B. assign the code for chronic burns.

   C. classify all burns as acute burns.

   D. assign the code for third-degree burns.

55.   Which of the following forms is used to bill outpatient charges? 

    

   A. CMS-1500 or UCF-1500.

   B. AMA-14 or UCF-1250

   C. HCFA-1400 or CMS-1540

   D. HCFA-1350 or CMS-650

56.   A significant, separately identifiable E/M service performed by the same physician in conjunction with another service performed on the same day would be reported using what modifier? 

    

   A. -TC

   B. -47

   C. -90

   D. -25

57.   Which of the following modifiers would be assigned for a moribund patient? 

    

   A. P5

   B. P1

   C. P4

   D. P3

58.   Taking certain steps to protect PHI from being accidentally released to individuals who don’t need to know the information is called the 

    

   A. minimum necessary standard.

   B. information provision standard.

   C. privacy management statute.

   D. health information guardianship guideline.

59.   Codes for plastic repair of the perineum are found in which code range? 

    

   A. 57000–57426

   B. 57000–57010

   C. 57150–57180

   D. 56800–56810

60.   A coder overhears a confidential statement made outside of the court, and then, when called to testify, repeats the statement as being truth. This is an example of 

    

   A. speculation.

   B. hearsay.

   C. a direct quote.

   D. cross-examination.

61.   A nurse sustains an accidental needle pinprick to the right third finger while administering an injection. If an employee has an occupational exposure, what must happen? 

    

   A. An in-service meeting should be held for all employees who may potentially be exposed to the same occupational hazard.

   B. The employee should contact the proper authorities.

   C. Hospital administrators must maintain the nurse’s medical record for the remainder of her employment plus an additional 30 years.

   D. The guidelines for OSHA should be included in the employment file.

62.   Another name for third-party contractors who have access to medical information is 

    

   A. healthcare vendors.

   B. insurance administrators.

   C. covered entities.

   D. business associates.

63.   A patient receives two venous pressure clamps for hemodialysis. What HCPCS Level II code is assigned? 

    

   A. A4751

   B. A4918 × 2

   C. A4751 × 2

   D. A4918

 

64.   The anatomical location of the calyx is the 

    

   A. arm.

   B. kidney.

   C. spine.

   D. brain.

65.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of ongoing headaches. The headaches began one week prior and have persisted ever since. A lumbar spinal tap is performed to pinpoint the source of the patient’s headaches. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 62270, G74.3

   B. 62270, G44.1

   C. 62141, G46.8

   D. 62272, G46.9

66.   A coder assigns a HCPCS Level II code to a patient’s medical record. The code description reads as follows: Enteral feeding supply kit; syringe fed, per day, includes but not limited to feeding/flushing syringe, administration set tubing, dressings, tape. Based on this description, which HCPCS Level II code was assigned? 

    

   A. B4278

   B. B4125

   C. B4072

   D. B4034

67.   To conform to the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which of the following safeguards must be maintained in health care facilities? 

    

   A. ICD-7 provisional safeguards

   B. Immunization and injection safeguards

   C. Reasonable administrative, technical, and physical safeguards

   D. Hazardous waste protection safeguards

68.   A patient receives a blood glucose monitor. What HCPCS Level II code would be assigned? 

    

   A. E0976

   B. E0562

   C. E4752

   D. E0607

69.   Alternative dispute resolution (ADR) allows 

    

   A. lawyer-to-lawyer mediation during trial recess.

   B. mediating disputes with a judge in the presence of the bailiff.

   C. resolving medical malpractice suits by submitting pretrial depositions.

   D. litigants to resolve disputes prior to or after the start of litigation.

70.   A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for 48 hours to receive treatment from her physician. This patient would be covered under 

    

   A. Medicare Part B.

   B. Medicare Part A.

   C. Medicare Part D.

   D. Medicare Part C.

71.   Another term for disease evolution is 

    

   A. remission.

   B. pathogenesis.

   C. morphology.

   D. exacerbation.

72.   In relation to HIPAA regulations regarding the manner in which information can be disclosed, which of the following statements is true? 

    

   A. Protected health information must be disclosed only when the patient is unable to testify in a court proceeding.

   B. Protected health information may never be disclosed.

   C. Protected health information may be disclosed in a judicial or administrative proceeding if the request is made through an order from a court or administrative tribunal.

   D. Protected health information may be disclosed only within a deposition.

73.   The gatekeeper concept refers to the operation of 

    

   A. ambulatory payment surgery centers.

   B. prospective payment organizations.

   C. retrospective payment organizations.

   D. health maintenance organizations.

74.   Which of the following procedures would be performed to treat prostate cancer? 

    

   A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

   B. Meniscectomy

   C. Vasoconstriction

   D. Arthroscopy

75.   What diagnosis code would be assigned for a patient diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic nephropathy? 

    

   A. E11.21

   B. E11.01

   C. E11.22

   D. E11.9

76.   Another name for Medicare Advantage is 

    

   A. Medicare Part A.

   B. Medicare Part C.

   C. Medicare Part B.

   D. Medicare Part D.

77.   The codes for pacemakers and implantable defibrillators would be found in what section of CPT? 

    

   A. 33200–33205

   B. 33437–33537

   C. 33202–33273

   D. 33533–33799

78.   A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed with type I diabetes. She also complains of watery eyes, congestion, pressure in the sinuses, and difficulty breathing. Her final diagnoses are right lower quadrant abdominal pain, type I diabetes, acute sinusitis, and asthma. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 99222, R18.91, E16.9, J01.91, J45.919

   B. 99221, R17.41, E17.9, J01.90, J45.909

   C. 99223, R14.31, E15.9, J01.90, J45.929

   D. 99221, R10.31, E10.9, J01.90, J45.909

79.   What is considered to be protected health information (PHI)? 

    

   A. Any health information that can identify the individual to whom it refers

   B. Records pertaining to ancestry

   C. Statistical data compiled for research purposes only

   D. Census data

 

80.   In what CPT code range is Surgical Pathology found? 

    

   A. 88515–88598

   B. 88300–88309

   C. 88400–80499

   D. 88000–80299

 

81.   The federal law that requires a patient’s written consent prior to disclosure of certain medical information by government agencies is called the 

    

   A. Health Care Amendment of 1976.

   B. Privacy Act of 1974.

   C. Health Information Law of 2002.

   D. Medical Consent Act of 1965.

82.   Data stored in a health care facility must 

    

   A. be organized in accordance with state standards for electronic data interchange.

   B. adhere to OIG policies and procedures.

   C. conform to the physician’s expectations for data storage.

   D. comply with HIPAA rules and must be maintained securely.

83.   Under HIPAA, health care facilities must 

    

   A. maintain a clean, safe working environment.

   B. choose a privacy officer in accordance with HIPAA policies and procedures.

   C. keep records of patients who refill prescriptions more than once within a three-month timeframe.

   D. follow up with patients who repeatedly miss scheduled appointments for mandatory services.

84.   What CPT code would be assigned for a colpocentesis? 

    

   A. 57135

   B. 57859

   C. 57600

   D. 57020

85.   A patient is prescribed a medication that narrows the blood vessels and raises her blood pressure. The medication is most likely a 

    

   A. tranquilizer.

   B. vasoconstrictor.

   C. cardiotonic.

   D. cardiogenic.

86.   If patients choose to obtain copies of their medical records, under the terms of HIPAA, providers can 

    

   A. complete employee paperwork.

   B. charge a reasonable fee for providing copies of those records.

   C. reschedule office visits to allow time to update medical records.

   D. also fulfill requests for prescription data.

87.   According to the CMS National Physician Fee Schedule, what is the conversion factor for basic life support mileage? 

    

   A. $34.5741

   B. $32.4726

   C. $28.8457

   D. $36.0666

88.   According to HIPAA, a patient’s information may be released for 

    

   A. determining premiums based on a patient’s past medical history.

   B. paternity testing.

   C. research.

   D. transferring electronic medical records to remote locations.

89.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of fever, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The patient is diagnosed with salmonella meningitis. What ICD-10-CM code would be assigned? 

    

   A. A07.21

   B. A02.21

   C. A05.26

   D. A23.24

90.   Which of the following anatomical locations would contain the diaphysis? 

    

   A. Metatarsal

   B. Tibia

   C. Septum

   D. Diaphragm

91.   A patient comes to the clinic complaining of nausea, vomiting, fever, dizziness, and intermittent confusion. The physician conducts a detailed history and examination and reviews the patient’s lab results. The patient is diagnosed with pyelonephritis and is scheduled for an ultrasound to review the state of the kidneys and other organs. What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are assigned? 

    

   A. 76775-TC, N15

   B. 71010-26, B12

   C. 76775-26, N10

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Hello world!

Welcome to WordPress. This is your first post. Edit or delete it, then start writing!

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family health assessment

Select a family to complete a family health assessment. (The family cannot be your own.)

Before interviewing the family, develop three open-ended, family-focused questions for each of the following health patterns:

  1. Values, Health Perception
  2. Nutrition
  3. Sleep/Rest
  4. Elimination
  5. Activity/Exercise
  6. Cognitive
  7. Sensory-Perception
  8. Self-Perception
  9. Role Relationship
  10. Sexuality
  11. Coping

NOTE: Your list of questions must be submitted with your assignment as an attachment.

After interviewing the family, compile the data and analyze the responses.

In 1,000-1,250 words, summarize the findings for each functional health pattern for the family you have selected.

Identify two wellness problems based on your family assessment.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

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The Planning Process

DUE 3/15/2018 8 P.M EST

PUBLIC HEALTH ….CAMPAIGN PRESCRIPTION DRUG OVERDOSE

APA FORMAT MIN 4 REFERENCES

 

Discussion: The Planning Process

In planning for your public health campaign (PRESCRIPTION DRUG OVERDOSE), first you must identify the problem. You ask questions such as “what is happening in the community?” and “what are the critical issues that need to be addressed within my target audience?” By asking these types of questions, you gain knowledge about the true needs of the community and can develop public health campaigns reflecting those needs. Second, you must establish your goals for your campaign, and identify effective marketing techniques and a communication plan. The planning process is a comprehensive yet valuable tool for any public health leader to maintain clarity, organization, and focus of the campaign.

For this Discussion, consider the important elements of the planning process and what factors (individual, environmental, financial, social, to name a few) could inhibit or enhance the development and/or implementation of your public health campaign.

With these thoughts in mind:

Post a brief description of which element of the planning process is most valuable in developing a public health campaign (PRESCRIPTION DRUG OVERDOSE) and explain why. Then describe one factor (individual, environmental, financial, etc.) that may facilitate and one factor that may inhibit the planning of your public health campaign and explain why.

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electronic health records (EHR)

After reading the required chapters on “Flow Sheets, Annotated Drawings, and Graphs” and “Using the EHR to Improve Patient Health,” complete and submit the following in an APA-style scholarly essay:

Begin your essay with an introduction explaining the purpose of the essay.

Discuss the purpose of flow sheets in a medical environment. Explain how flow sheets are used in obstetrics offices and chronic disease management. Explainthedifferencebetweenaform-basedflowsheetandaproblem-orientedflowsheet.

Detail how annotated drawings are used in a medical environment.

Describe how electronic health records (EHR) preventive care systems work.

Outline the pros and cons of using (EHR) as a preventative measure.

Your essay must be at least two pages, and you must use at least two academic sources, one of which may be your textbook. Be sure to cite and reference any information from these sources in APA style, and format your paper in accordance to APA guidelines.

Information about accessing the grading rubric for this assignment is provided below.

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Differential Diagnosis

The Assignment:

Examine Case 1. You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the diagnosis and treatment for this client. Be sure to consider co-morbid physical as well as mental factors that might impact the client’s diagnosis and treatment.

At each Decision Point, stop to complete the following:

Decision  #1: Differential Diagnosis

Which  Decision did you select? Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence  and references to the Learning Resources.

  • What       were you hoping to achieve by       making this Decision? Support your       response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
  • Explain       any difference between what you       expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the Decision. Why       were they different?
  • Decision      #2: Treatment Plan for Psychotherapy
    • Why       did you select this Decision?       Support your response with evidence       and references to the Learning Resources.
    • What       were you hoping to achieve by       making this Decision? Support your       response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
    • Explain       any difference between what you       expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the Decision. Why       were they different?
  • Decision      #3: Treatment Plan for Psychopharmacology
  • Why       did you select this Decision?       Support your response with evidence       and references to the Learning Resources.
  • What       were you hoping to achieve by       making this Decision? Support your       response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.
    • Explain       any difference between what you       expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why       were they different?
  • Also include how ethical considerations      might impact your treatment plan and      communication with clients and their families.

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non-parametric and parametric tests.

Answer to this post. APA, citation and reference . I need an answer that support the text below .

Discuss the differences between non-parametric and parametric tests.

Parametric and nonparametric tests are terms used by statistics shins frequently when doing analysis. Parametric and nonparametric tests referred to hypothesis test of the mean and median. The mean being the parametric and the median being a non-parametric. Parametric test assumes that your date of follows a specific distribution whereas non-parametric test also known as distribution free test do not.

Provide an example of each and discuss when it is appropriate to use the test. Next, discuss the assumptions that must be met by the investigator to run the test.

An example of a parametric test is a 1-2 sample T Test. It is appropriate to use this type of analysis when the sample size is greater than 20. In order to run a parametric test a researcher must know and assume that the test can perform well with skewed and non normal distributions. Another assumption a researcher must have in order to run a parametric test is the knowledge of knowing that the parametric test can perform well when the spread of each group is different.

An example of a non-parametric test is a 1 sample sign. One reason to perform a study using a non-parametric test is because you can perform a parametric test with non normal data. Another reason to use a non-parametric test in a study is when you have a very small sample size,  original data, rank data or outliers which are not removable.  An assumption that must be met any nonparametric test is that the data for all groups must have the same dispersion.

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Epidemiologic Designs

Epidemiologic Designs

As introduced in the first few weeks of this course, investigators use various epidemiological study designs to study health problems and the effects of health interventions. You have examined several study designs, including descriptive designs (in Week 2) and analytic study designs that are observational (in Week 3) or experimental (this week). As a DNP student, you should be able to determine which study design would be most suitable for addressing a health problem of interest to you, as this is a foundation for evidence-based practice.

For this Discussion, you will consider which epidemiologic study design (i.e., descriptive, ecologic, cross-sectional, case-control, cohort, or experimental) is most appropriate for investigating the population health problem you selected for Assignment 1. In addition, you will consider which epidemiologic data sources you would use to examine your health problem.

To prepare:

  • Reflect on the population      health problem you identified in Assignment 1, which you will use for      Major Assessment 7, and your early review of the literature.
  • Identify a question for your      study; this will help you select an appropriate design.
  • Consider which epidemiologic      study design (i.e., descriptive, ecologic, cross-sectional, case-control,      cohort, or experimental) is most appropriate for addressing your selected      health problem based upon the assumptions and basic tenets of each design.
  • Determine which      epidemiological design(s) would not be appropriate for your study and why.
  • Also, explore the various      health data resources that were presented in Chapter 5 of the course      text, Epidemiology for Public Health Practice. Consider which      data resources you could use for your study, assessing the strengths and      limitations of those resources.

By tomorrow 03/21//2018, write a minimum of 550 words in APA format with at least 3 scholarly references from the list of required readings below. Include the level one headings as numbered below”

Post a cohesive scholarly response that addresses the following:

1) Briefly summarize the population health problem you selected for Major Assessment 7, and state the study question you want to answer.

2) Explain which epidemiologic study design is most appropriate for your study, as well as the assumptions and tenets that support its application.

3) Analyze the strengths and the limitations of the potential data sources you might use for your study.

Required Readings

Friis, R. H., & Sellers, T. A. (2014). Epidemiology for public health practice (5th ed.). Sudbury, MA: Jones & Bartlett.

Chapter 8, “Experimental Study Designs”

This chapter examines experimental and quasi-experimental study designs.

Johnson, T. S. (2010). A brief review of pharmacotherapeutic treatment options in smoking cessation: Bupropion versus varenicline. Journal of the American Academy of Nurse Practitioners, 22(10), 557–563.

The authors of this article explored treatment options for smoking cessation by examining the research literature, including looking at the results of randomized control trials. This article provides an example of how such a literature review can influence practice demonstrate the use and benefits of randomized control trial study designs.

Milligan, K., Niccols, A., Sword, W., Thabane, L., Henderson, J., Smith, A., & Liu, J. (2010). Maternal substance use and integrated treatment programs for women with substance abuse issues and their children: A meta-analysis. Substance Abuse Treatment, Prevention & Policy, 5, 21–34.

This article examines programs that integrate substance abuse treatment and pregnancy, parenting, or child services. The authors conclude that there is a need for funding of high-quality randomized control trial and improved reporting practices. This article also demonstrates the application of analytic research designs to explore a population health problem.

Talaat, M., Afifi, S., Dueger, E., El-Ashry, N., Marfin, A., Kandeel, A., Mohareb, E., & El-Sayed, N. (2011). Effects of hand hygiene campaigns on incidence of laboratory-confirmed influenza and absenteeism in schoolchildren, Cairo, Egypt. Emerging Infectious Diseases, 17(4), 619–625.

This research study used a randomized control trial to examine the association between hand washing and reducing influenza. As you review this article, notice how they structured the research study and how they measured the association between hand washing and absenteeism.

Physicians’ Health Study (2010). Retrieved from http://phs.bwh.harvard.edu

This large-scale, randomized clinical trial that began in 1982 was designed to test the effectiveness of aspirin and beta carotene in preventing heart attacks (myocardial infarctions, or MIs) in male physicians aged 40–84. The first phase of the trial, which included more than 22,000 study subjects, demonstrated that low-dose aspirin does, in fact, reduce the risk of a first MI by 44%. This article provides a good example of the types of large-scale studies conducted using epidemiologic principles that lead to improved population health.

Required Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012). Epidemiology and population health: Experimental studies [Video file]. Baltimore, MD: Author.

Note: The approximate length of this media piece is 5 minutes.

In this program, the presenters discuss experimental studies, including the effect of randomization and blinding on study results.

Optional Resources

Groopman, J. (2006, December 18) Medical dispatch—The right to a trial: Should dying patients have access to experimental drugs? New Yorker, 82(42), 40–47.

Dorak, M. T. (2006). Epidemiologic study designs [PowerPoint presentation]. Retrieved from http://www.dorak.info/epi/design.ppt

Ibrahim, M., Alexander, L., Shy, C., & Farr, S. (2000). Randomized trials. ERIC Notebook, 10, 1–4. Retrieved from

http://cphp.sph.unc.edu/trainingpackages/ERIC/eric_notebook_10.pdf

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public health issue

Select a public health issue and write a 750-1,000 word policy brief that provides a brief summary of the issue, options to solve the issue, and the best way to solve this issue. Select a public health issue from one of the following American Public Health Association websites: Climate Change (https://www.apha.org/topics-and-issues/climate-change) or Topics and Issues (https://www.apha.org/topics-and-issues).

Follow this outline when writing the policy brief:

  1. Identify issue.
  2. Background information – (a) Population effected; (b) Local, state or national level; and (c) Evidence about the issues supported by resources
  3. Problem statement.
  4. Suggestions for addressing the issue (solutions) – (a) Including necessary stakeholders (government officials, administrator); and (b) Include budget or funding considerations, if applicable
  5. Impact on the Health Care Delivery System

Include three peer-reviewed sources and two other sources to support the policy brief.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

RUBRIC:

Background Information:

A discussion of background information is thoroughly developed with supporting details.

Problem Statement:

A problem statement is thoroughly developed with supporting details.

Suggestions:

Suggestions for addressing the issue are thoroughly developed with supporting details.

Impact:

A discussion on the impact on the health care delivery system is thoroughly developed with supporting details.

Thesis Development and Purpose:

Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear.

Argument Logic and Construction:

Clear and convincing argument that presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative.

Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use):

Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English.

Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment):

All format elements are correct.

Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style):

Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error.

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