Question 1: For the convenience of the contractor and Government, DOD contract administration has been consolidated in the:
(a) Procuring agencies (b) Defense Contract Audit Agency (c) Office of Management and Budget (d) None of the above
Question 2: Which of the following departments need not be furnished a brief contract summary by the contract manager?
(a) Engineering (b) Finance (c) Inspection (d) Operations (e) None of the above
Question 3: Which of the following is true about contract administration in companies?
(a) Contract management may be responsible for cradle to grave contracting (b) Contract organization may be responsible for only administration of contracts (c) Contract
managers may be assigned to program management (d) Contract management responsibilities may vary from company to company (e) All of the above
Question 4: The Government will reject a product that does not conform to the contract requirements when that nonconformance adversely affects:
(a) Safety (b) Health (c) Reliability (d) Performance (e) All of the above
Question 5: The following is often considered the “ultimate metric” regarding the success of a contract:
(a) Timely performance (b) Customer satisfaction (c) Meeting contract budgets (d) A good product
Question 6: A __________ defect is discoverable by normal inspection means
(a) Latent (b) Circumstantial (c) Patent (d) Stealth (e) All of the above
Question 7: What would be the remedy for a deliverable that has been accepted but is found not to conform to contract requirements?
(a) Rejection if defect is reported to contractor in a reasonable time (b) Invoke an implied warranty (c) Invoke an express warranty (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Question 8: A contractor performance evaluation should be marked:
(a) “Restricted Data” (b) “For Official Use Only” (c) “Proprietary Data” (d) “Source Selection Information” (e) “Competition Sensitive”
Question 9: Unilateral contract modification may be used for:
(a) Changes under a changes clause (b) Administrative changes (c) Termination notices (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
Question 10: The basic types of contract modifications include:
(a) Additive and constructive (b) Unilateral and constructive (c) Bilateral and constructive (d) Unilateral and bilateral (e) Additive and deductive
Question 11: When the Disputes clause is not included in a contract, the contractor is denied appeal to the:
(a) Contracting officer (b) Boards of Contract Appeals (c) US Court of Federal Claims (d) None of the above
Question 12: The Inspection of Supplies – Cost Reimbursement clause states that at any time during the performance of the contract, but not later than __________ after acceptance of the supplies or lots of supplies last delivered, the government may require the contractor to remedy, by correction or replacement, any supplies which at the time of delivery were defective in material or workmanship or otherwise not in conformity with the contract
(a) Fourteen days (b) One month (c) Three months (d) Six months
Question 13: For contractor claims of $100,000 or less, the contracting officer must, if requested in writing by the contractor, render a decision within:
(a) One week (b) Thirty days (c) Sixty days (d) Six months
Question 14: In __________ a neutral assists disputants in articulating and understanding each other’s positions with the ultimate goal of reaching solutions that will preserve the parties’ key interests
(a) Settlement negotiation (b) Mediation (c) Facilitation (d) Conciliation
Question 15: When does the contract administration function start?
(a) With contract formation (b) When the contractor signs the contract (c) When the first item is delivered (d) When the negotiations begin
Question 16: Under cost, redeterminable, and incentive contracts, subcontracts of various types and amounts must be approved by the:
(a) Contracting officer (b) Prime contractor
Question 17: When does the contract administration function end?
(a) When the final item is delivered (b) When final payment is made under the contract (c) Approximately half way through performance of the contract (d) After Government acceptance
Question 18: A contracting officer has no contractual right to:
(a) Make changes in material specifications (b) Make changes without notice to the sureties (c) Make changes within the general scope of the contract (d) Issue a “no cost” or “no impact” change order (e) None of the above
Question 19: There are two basic types of cost-plus-fixed-fee contracts __________ describes the scope of work to be done in general terms and which obligates the contractor to devote a specified level of effort for a stated period of time for the conduct of research and development activities
(a) Completion form (b) Term form
Question 20: Under a termination for default:
(a) The Government is liable for the contractor’s cost (b) The contractor always maintains the title to the material (c) The Government is entitled to the repayment of advance payments and progress payments (d) None of the above
Question 21: Which of the following is a consideration that should be taken into account by the contracting officer prior to taking a default action?
(a) The provisions of the contract and applicable laws and regulations (b) The specific failure of the contractor and the excuses for such failure (c) The nature of the item being purchased (d) Whether the item is highly technical, supply of which is limited to a few select contractors (e) All of the above
Question 22: Where is the requirement specified that a contracting officer must send a contractor a “show cause” letter before terminating him for default?
(a) In the Default clause (b) In Public Law 87-653 (c) There is no legal requirement for sending a “show cause” letter (d) In the Constitution (e) At FAR Part 472
Question 23: Which of the following is not a category of excuse for default?
(a) Excusable delay (b) Defective specifications (c) Impossibility (d) Insufficient labor pool (e) Defective notice
Question 24: When a contract is terminated, the Government will reimburse the prime contractor for his settlements with fixed-price subcontracts on the basis of the:
(a) Termination clause included in the subcontract (b) Amount paid the subcontractor (c) Termination clause included in the prime contract (d) None of the above
Question 25: It is to the contractor’s advantage to submit a settlement proposal based on the __________ basis when he is operating at an actual loss under the contract before termination
(a) Total cost (b) Inventory (c) Percentage of completion (d) None of the above
Question 26: The plant clearance period begins:
(a) On the date of termination or completion (b) When the contractor submits acceptable inventory schedules (c) 24 hours after the contractor receives the notice of termination (d) When the contractor’s personnel office receives notice of the termination
Question 27: When a cost-reimbursement contract is terminated, the contractor may voucher out his costs until:
(a) The plant clearance period commences (b) The last day of the sixth month following the termination (c) Directed to stop by the contracting officer (d) Three months have elapsed from the date of termination
Question 28: The contractor may charge storage costs for termination inventory starting from:
(a) The date of termination (b) The beginning of the plant clearance period (c) The end of the plant clearance period (d) The date that he submits acceptable inventory schedules
Question 29: This Act applies when administering a contract for the manufacture or furnishing of supplies:
(a) Walsh-Healey Public Contracts Act (b) Service Contract Act (c) Davis-Bacon Act (d) Fair Labor Standards Act
TRUE – FALSE:
Question 30: For government property that is damaged while in the possession of the contractor, the extent of contractor’s liability will be either any loss, damage, or destruction; or only loss, damage or destruction due to lack of good faith or willful misconduct on the part of managerial personnel (T or F)
Question 31: For complex programs, the contract may require an earned value management system (T or F)
Question 32: An option clause gives the Government/buyer a unilateral right to purchase additional supplies or services (T or F)
Question 33: The Excusable Delays clause is required in cost type prime contracts (T or F)
Question 34: The Contract Disputes Act limited the jurisdiction of the Boards of Contract Appeals (T or F)
Question 35: Under fixed price contracts, after inspection has been made and the delivered items are accepted, the contractor is paid (T or F)
Question 36: The formulation of the statement of work is the first and most important step in the contractual process (T or F)
Question 37: Continual defaults may make the contractor ineligible to receive further government contracts (T or F)
Question 38: Subcontractors are not required to use standard inventory forms if substantially equivalent information is otherwise obtained (T or F)
Question 39: Supplies that are late in delivery cannot be accepted under a Government contract (T or F)
Question 40: Contract management has been standardized in industry (T or F)

2:55 2:15 M-W Section tage Rou all Round.. ID E73 Re Question 2 (of 2) 5.00 points gage Learning rnal Online Problem 12-12 A botting plant fils 2,400 bottles every two hours. The lead Sme is 50 minutes and a container accommodates 80 bottes How many kanban cards are . The safety stock is 30 percent of expected demand needed? (Round up your answer to the next whole number.) Number of kanban card sets Cbjpctive: 12-02 Bustrabe supply chain processesShow transcribed image text 2:55 2:15 M-W Section tage Rou all Round.. ID E73 Re Question 2 (of 2) 5.00 points gage Learning rnal Online Problem 12-12 A botting plant fils 2,400 bottles every two hours. The lead Sme is 50 minutes and a container accommodates 80 bottes How many kanban cards are . The safety stock is 30 percent of expected demand needed? (Round up your answer to the next whole number.) Number of kanban card sets Cbjpctive: 12-02 Bustrabe supply chain processes

Please answer the following Discussion Question.  Please be certain to answer the two questions on this week DQ and to provide a well-developed and complete answer to receive credit.  Also, please ensure to have read the assigned chapters for the current week. 
Case Study, Chapter 18, Academic Integrity in Nursing Education: Is it Declining?
A group of nursing students are in the middle of an exam when two students witness another student pull out his phone and look up answers. Neither student informs the faculty member but after the exam they discuss what they witnessed.
1. Describe the most common forms of cheating in the classroom and in the clinical area.
2. What should the nursing students do in regard to what they witnessed during the exam? Why is it important for them to do anything? 

Minimum of 250 word’s  at  least 2 peer review reference in 6th edition apa style.
You are in a place of influence in your professional life where you can help people be successful. Describe the relationship and what actions you have taken or could take to serve others. Based on the textbook, how does your response compare to the views of authority according to servant leadership? How does your response compare to the secular view of authority?
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