Is there any empirical evidence or can there be any empirical evidence showing that all neurotic behavior stems from a persons loss of the real self?

Questions:
1- Horney states that her goal in therapy and Freuds goals in therapy have different objectives. What are the modern implications?
2- How does Horney views of neurosis as a disturbance in human relationship compare with Frueds view of neurosis?
3- Is there any empirical evidence or can there be any empirical evidence showing that all neurotic behavior stems from a persons loss of the real self?
4- What might be gained and what might be lost when a patient undergoing therapy rejects the idealized self in favor of the real self?
5-What are the implications for women of viewing psychological development as centered around the penis as Freud asserted? What are the implications for understanding personality of focusing more on the culture as Horney suggests?