The purpose of this paper is to complete a comparative ethical analysis of the case study *attached* to study George’s situation and decision from the perspective of two worldviews or religions: Christianity and Judaism.

PART 1

In your comparative analysis, address all of the worldview questions in detail for Christianity and the Jewish faith. Refer to the the list of questions below. Once you have outlined the worldview of each religion, begin your ethical analysis from each perspective.

to understand the concept of worldview, answer the following questions:

-What is prime reality?

-What is the nature of the world around us?

-What is a human being?

-What happens to a person at death?

-Why is it possible to know anything at all?

-How do we know what is right and wrong?

-What is the meaning of human history?

PART 2

In 1,500-2,000 words, provide an ethical analysis based upon the different belief systems, reinforcing major themes with insights gained from your research, and answering the following questions based on the research: (USE THE ATTACHED CASE STUDY FOR THIS PART)

1. How  would each religion interpret the nature of George’s malady and suffering? Is there a “why” to his disease and suffering? (i.e., is there a reason for why George is ill, beyond the reality of physical malady?)
2. In George’s analysis of his own life, how would each religion think about the  value of his life as a person, and value of his life with ALS?
3. What  Sorts of values and considerations would each religion focus on in deliberating about whether or not George should opt for euthanasia?
4. Given  the above, what options would be morally justified under each religion for George and why?
5. Finally,  present and defend your own view (Christian but does not practice the faith actively, believes in god and jesus, heaven and hell but more conservative in the ideas to choose our own path and life choices vs. god’s will).

Support your position by referencing at least three academic resources in addition to the course readings, lectures, the Bible, and the textbooks for each religion. Each religion must have a primary source included. A total of six references are required according to the specifications listed above. Incorporate the research into your writing in an appropriate, scholarly manner.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide. An abstract is required

Sources that may be utilized:

Moulton, B., & King, J. S. (2010). Aligning Ethics with Medical Decision-Making: The Quest for Informed Patient Choice. Journal Of Law, Medicine & Ethics, 38(1), 85-97. doi:10.1111/j.1748-720X.2010.00469.x

Richard Jason, C. (2012). Making the case for ethical decision-making models. Nurse Prescribing, 10(12), 607-622.

Puchalski, C. M. (2001). The role of spirituality in health care. Proceedings (Baylor University. Medical Center), 14(4), 352-357.

Called to Care: A Christian Worldview for Nursing. http://gcumedia.com/digital-resources/intervarsity-press/2006/called-to-care_a-christian-worldview-for-nursing_ebook_2e.php

Attached sources from text readings can also be utilized in addition to bible referencing for each religion as well*****

Chapter 14: Nursing Management During Labor and Birth

1.  Desiree, a 28-year-old G2P1, is admitted to the labor and birth unit. Her birth plan indicates that she is planning natural childbirth without pharmacological interventions. She has attended childbirth education classes. Desiree is considered low risk based on her personal and family health history and physical exam. Her pregnancy has progressed without complications. She is approximately 38 weeks pregnant. Vaginal assessment reveals cervical dilation at 10 cm, 100% effaced, and +1 station. Position of the fetus is LOA. The external fetal monitor indicates a reassuring fetal heart rate at 130 beats per minute. Maternal status is stable. (Learning Objectives 1, 2, 6, and 9)

1. Based on the vaginal assessment, identify the stage of labor and appropriate nursing interventions for this stage of labor.
2. Explain how the nurse determined that the external fetal monitor would be appropriate for Desiree. What factors would necessitate a change to internal fetal monitoring during labor?
3. Desiree says, “I’m not sure I can cope with the pain much longer.” How would you respond, considering her birth plan, stage of labor, and assessment data?

2.  Emily, a 26-year-old G3P2, has been in labor for 5 hours and is 7 cm, 90% effaced and +2 station.  She has external fetal monitoring in place, which reveals a baseline fetal heart rate of 120 bpm, minimal variability, and occasional variable decelerations.  Suddenly, as a contraction is beginning to subside, the fetal heart rate drops to a low of 80 bpm and has a slow return to the baseline 1 minute after the contraction has ended.  (Learning Objectives 4 and 5)

A.  What is happening to Emily’s baby at this point in time?  What does this mean?

B.  What role do you, as the nurse, play regarding fetal assessment and what interventions do you need to implement/recommend at this point in time?

Chapter 15: Postpartum Adaptations

1.     You are caring for Linda, who has just delivered her first baby. You are responsible for assessing Linda’s condition during recovery and for doing patient teaching when the opportunity arises. (Learning Objectives 2 and 3)

1. While she is recovering, you keep checking her fundal height. Linda asks you how her uterus will go back to the way it was before she had the baby. How would you explain this physiologic process? What could impede the process?
2. Linda wants to know how long she should expect to bleed. What would you tell her?
3. The next day Linda appears very passive and you have overheard her telling everyone who will listen about her labor experience. What phase of adjustment is Linda going through? What other stages should she go through while adjusting to her new role?

2.     Gretta and Sam just had their first child. Gretta is excited and talkative about her birth experience and wants to keep her baby with her constantly. She tells you his name is Joseph and they will call him “Joey” for short. Gretta is breast-feeding and is attentive to Joey’s needs. You observe that Sam does not initiate contact with the baby but when Gretta insists that he hold Joey, he picks him up slowly and awkwardly and stares at his face for a long period of time. When Joey cries, he immediately returns him to Gretta’s arms. (Learning Objective 4)

A.   Based on your observations of Sam’s interactions with Joey, relate where Sam is developmentally in the process of paternal attachment and bonding.

B.    What nursing interventions could you implement that would assist Sam in the transition to fatherhood?

Discussion: Examining Nursing Specialties

You have probably seen one or more of the many inspirational posters about decisions. A visual such as a forked road or a street sign is typically pictured, along with a quote designed to inspire.

Often decisions are not so easily inspired. Perhaps you discovered this when choosing a specialty within the MSN program. This decision is a critical part of your plan for success, and you no doubt want to get it right. This is yet another area where your network can help, as well as other sources of information that can help you make an informed choice.

To Prepare:

• Reflect on your decision to pursue a specialty within the MSN program, including your professional and academic goals as they relate to your program/specialization.

By Day 3

Post an explanation of your choice of a nursing specialty within the program. Describe any difficulties you had (or are having) in making your choice, and the factors that drove/are driving your decision. Identify at least one professional organization affiliated with your chosen specialty and provide details on becoming a member.

Support main post with 3 of more current, credible sources and cite source within content of posting and on a reference list in proper APA.

By Day 6

Be sure to offer support from at least 2 current, credible sources in each required response to classmates’ main post and cite per APA.

Respond to at least two of your colleagues on two different days, by sharing your thoughts on their specialty, supporting their choice or offering suggestions if they have yet to choose.

Submission and Grading Information

Grading Criteria

Learning Resources

Note: To access this week’s required library resources, please click on the link to the Course Readings List, found in the Course Materials section of your Syllabus.

Required Readings

Bickford, C. J., Marion, L., & Gazaway, S. (2015). Nursing: Scope and standards of practice, third edition—2015. Retrieved from https://www.augusta.edu/nursing/cnr/documents/seminar-files/pp8.28.pdf 

Quinn-Szcesuil, J. (2016). Why you should join a nursing association. Retrieved from https://dailynurse.com/join-nursing-association/ 

Robert Wood Johnson Foundation. (2011). Implementing the ION future of nursing report—part II: The potential of interprofessional collaborative care to improve safety and quality. Charting Nursing’s Future, (17)1–8. Retrieved from https://www.rwjf.org/content/dam/farm/reports/issue_briefs/2011/rwjf71709 

Robert Wood Johnson Foundation. (2010, November 22). Interdisciplinary collaboration improves safety, quality of care, experts say. Retrieved from https://www.rwjf.org/en/library/articles-and-news/2010/11/interdisciplinary-collaboration-improves-safety-quality-of-care-.html 

Walden University. (n.d.). Master of Science in Nursing (MSN). Retrieved October 12, 2018, from https://www.waldenu.edu/masters/master-of-science-in-nursing 

Document: Academic Success and Professional Development Plan Template (Word document)

Choose among the following to review your specialization’s Scope and Standards of Practice or Competencies:

American Nurses Association. (2015). Nursing informatics: Scope and standards of practice (2nd ed.). Silver Spring, MD: Author. 

Nursing Informatics

E-book: Nursing Informatics: Scope and Standards of Practice
“The Scope of Nursing Informatics Practice: Functional Areas of Nursing Informatics” (pp. 18–3

Nursing Education
Website: Competencies for the Academic Nurse Educator
National League for Nursing. (2019). Nurse educator core competency. Retrieved from http://www.nln.org/professional-development-programs/competencies-for-nursing-education/nurse-educator-core-competency
Note: The competencies for the Academic Nurse Educator do not encompass the competencies or scope and standards of practice for the Nursing Professional Developer. The set of competencies associated with that specific role within the Nurse Education specialization will be examined in future competencies throughout your specialization program of study.

Nurse Executive
Website: Nurse Executive Competencies
American Organization for Nursing Leadership. (2015). AONL Nurse Executive competencies. Retrieved from https://www.aonl.org/resources/nurse-leader-competencies

Public Health Nursing
Website: Public Health Nurse Competencies
Quad Council Coalition. (2018). Community/Public Health Nursing [C/PHN] competencies. Retrieved from http://www.quadcouncilphn.org/documents-3/2018-qcc-competencies/

American Nurses Association. (2013). Public health nursing: Scope and standards of practice (2nd ed.) Silver Spring, MD: Author.

Public Health Nursing
E-book: Public Health Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice

Optional Resources

Walden University. (n.d.). Subject Research: Nursing. Retrieved November 9, 2018, from https://academicguides.waldenu.edu/library/subject/nursing 

Rubric Detail

Select Grid View or List View to change the rubric’s layout.

Name: NURS_6002_Week_6_Discussion_Rubric

• Grid View
• List View

ExcellentGoodFairPoorMain Posting45 (45%) – 50 (50%)Answers all parts of the discussion question(s) expectations with reflective critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module and current credible sources.

Supported by at least three current, credible sources.

Written clearly and concisely with no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.40 (40%) – 44 (44%)Responds to the discussion question(s) and is reflective with critical analysis and synthesis of knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.

At least 75% of post has exceptional depth and breadth.

Supported by at least three credible sources.

Written clearly and concisely with one or no grammatical or spelling errors and fully adheres to current APA manual writing rules and style.35 (35%) – 39 (39%)Responds to some of the discussion question(s).

One or two criteria are not addressed or are superficially addressed.

Is somewhat lacking reflection and critical analysis and synthesis.

Somewhat represents knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.

Post is cited with two credible sources.

Written somewhat concisely; may contain more than two spelling or grammatical errors.

Contains some APA formatting errors.0 (0%) – 34 (34%)Does not respond to the discussion question(s) adequately.

Lacks depth or superficially addresses criteria.

Lacks reflection and critical analysis and synthesis.

Does not represent knowledge gained from the course readings for the module.

Contains only one or no credible sources.

Not written clearly or concisely.

Contains more than two spelling or grammatical errors.

Does not adhere to current APA manual writing rules and style.Main Post: Timeliness10 (10%) – 10 (10%)Posts main post by day 3.0 (0%) – 0 (0%)0 (0%) – 0 (0%)0 (0%) – 0 (0%)Does not post by day 3.First Response17 (17%) – 18 (18%)Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings.

Responds fully to questions posed by faculty.

Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources.

Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives.

Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed.

Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.15 (15%) – 16 (16%)Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings.

Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed.

Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources.

Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.13 (13%) – 14 (14%)Response is on topic and may have some depth.

Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication.

Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed.

Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.0 (0%) – 12 (12%)Response may not be on topic and lacks depth.

Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication.

Responses to faculty questions are missing.

No credible sources are cited.Second Response16 (16%) – 17 (17%)Response exhibits synthesis, critical thinking, and application to practice settings.

Responds fully to questions posed by faculty.

Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by at least two scholarly sources.

Demonstrates synthesis and understanding of learning objectives.

Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

Responses to faculty questions are fully answered, if posed.

Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.14 (14%) – 15 (15%)Response exhibits critical thinking and application to practice settings.

Communication is professional and respectful to colleagues.

Responses to faculty questions are answered, if posed.

Provides clear, concise opinions and ideas that are supported by two or more credible sources.

Response is effectively written in standard, edited English.12 (12%) – 13 (13%)Response is on topic and may have some depth.

Responses posted in the discussion may lack effective professional communication.

Responses to faculty questions are somewhat answered, if posed.

Response may lack clear, concise opinions and ideas, and a few or no credible sources are cited.0 (0%) – 11 (11%)Response may not be on topic and lacks depth.

Responses posted in the discussion lack effective professional communication.

Responses to faculty questions are missing.

No credible sources are cited.Participation5 (5%) – 5 (5%)Meets requirements for participation by posting on three different days.0 (0%) – 0 (0%)0 (0%) – 0 (0%)0 (0%) – 0 (0%)Does not meet requirements for participation by posting on 3 different days.Total Points: 100

Name: NURS_6002_Week_6_Discussion_Rubric

Due by Sunday August 25, 2019 @ 5:00 PM

Answer the following questions in regards to Jean Watson

1) Discuss Watson’s view of the body and soul. 

2) In the reading, Nature of Human Life and Subject Matter of Nursing and in particular the quotation of Jung ( 1068, p.99), comment on whether you agree or disagree with the statement; …people…” have not the slightest faith that anything useful could ever come out of their own soul”

3) After reading and reflecting on the 10 Caritas Processes that can cultivate caring moments or caring occasions, select “one” of the Caritas Processes that you feel is most important or resonates with you in cultivating caring.

*EACH QUESTION MUST BE AT LEAST 155 WORDS TO RECEIVE FULL CREDIT SO ALTOGETHER 465 WORDS 155 WORDS EACH QUESTION

NR 507 Week No. 1 Quiz

1.  Question: What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

2.  Question: Which statement is true about fungal infections?

3.  Question: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

4.  Question: Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

5.  Question: What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection?

6.  Question: Which statement about vaccines is true?

7.  Question: A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

8.  Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, what causes bronchospasm?

9.  Question: Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

10.  Question: What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

11.  Question: What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

12.  Question: In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

13.  Question: What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classifies it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

14.  Question: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and _____ is not successful.

15.  Question: What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

16.  Question: Which hormone increases the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?

17.  Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

18.  Question: Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

19.  Question: Which of the following cancers originate from connective tissue?

20.  Question: What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-) in cell metastasis?

21.  Question: In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

22.  Question: Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

23.  Question: Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

24.  Question: Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

25.  Question: Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except

NR 507 Week No. 2 Quiz

1.  Question: Why are infants susceptible to significant losses in total body water (TBW)?

2.  Question: When thirst is experienced, how are osmoreceptors activated?

3.  Question: What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

4.  Question: Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

5.  Question: Which are indications of dehydration?

6.  Question: Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

7.  Question: How does the loss of chloride during vomiting cause metabolic alkalosis?

8.  Question: In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

9.  Question: Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

10.  Question: Kussmaul respirations may be characterized as a respiratory pattern

11.  Question: Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

12.  Question: _____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

13.  Question: Dyspnea is not a result of

14.  Question: High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

15.  Question: Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

16.  Question: Which inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma?

17.  Question: In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating

18.  Question: The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

19.  Question: Which of the following types of croup is most common?

20.  Question: Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

21.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

22.  Question: What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

23.  Question: Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

24.  Question: The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

25.  Question: An accurate description of childhood asthma is that it is a(n)

NR 507 Week No. 3 Quiz

1.  Question: In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

2.  Question: Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?

3.  Question: Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

4.  Question: Clinical manifestations of mild to moderate splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias are indicative of which anemia?

5.  Question: Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

6.  Question: The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

7.  Question: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

8.  Question: Which of the following is a description consistent with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)?

9.  Question: What change is seen in leukocytes during an allergic disorder (type I) often caused by asthma, hay fever, and drug reactions?

10.  Question: What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

11.  Question: The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

12.  Question: In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

13.  Question: Polycythemia occurs in a fetus because

14.  Question: Erythroblastosis fetalis is defined as an

15.  Question: What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

16.  Question: G6PD and sickle cell disease are

17.  Question: In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

18.  Question: Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

19.  Question: What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?

20.  Question: Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?

21.  Question: Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

22.  Question: When does systemic vascular resistance in infants begin to rise?

23.  Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?

24.  Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

25.  Question: What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

NR 507 Week No. 5 Quiz

1. Question: Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

2.  Question: Where is oxytocin synthesized?

3.  Question: A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

4.  Question: What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?

5.  Question: What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

6.  Question: A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?

7.  Question: Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

8.  Question: Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

9.  Question: The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is the _____ pituitary.

10.  Question: Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?

11.  Question: When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.

12.  Question: Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

13.  Question: The first lab test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is

14.  Question: The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

15.  Question: Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?

16.  Question: What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

17.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

18.  Question: Which of the following laboratory values is consistently low in a client with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

19.  Question: The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

20.  Question: The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

21.  Question: Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

22.  Question: The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is

23.  Question: Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

24.  Question: A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

25.  Question: Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a

NR 507 Week No. 6 Quiz

1.  Question: A(n) _____ fracture is a fracture at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality, usually by a force that would not normally cause a fracture.

2.  Question: Which of the following attaches skeletal muscle to bone?

3.  Question: _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

4.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by the formation of abnormal new bone at an accelerated rate beginning with excessive resorption of spongy bone?

5.  Question: What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

6.  Question: Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by

7.  Question: Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis, what are the effects of extracellular signal regulated kinases (ERKs) and receptor activator of RANKL on osteoblasts and osteoclasts?

8.  Question: Cerebral palsy is usually a result of

9.  Question: An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

10.  Question: Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

11.  Question: Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

12.  Question: Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

13.  Question: The _____ is cartilage that retains the ability to form and calcify new cartilage and deposit bone until the skeleton matures.

14.  Question: The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

15.  Question: Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?

16.  Question: Chickenpox may be followed years later by

17.  Question: Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with a(n)

18.  Question: Which immunoglobulin is found in skin biopsy with immunofluorescent observation of people with discoid lupus erythematosus?

19.  Question: Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.

20.  Question: Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?

21.  Question: Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?

22.  Question: Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by

23.  Question: What is the cause of chickenpox?

24.  Question: Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?

25.  Question: What is a common source of tinea corporis?

NR 507 Week No. 7 Quiz

1.  Question: Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?

2.  Question: What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?

3.  Question: Subarachnoid hemorrhage causes communicating hydrocephalus by obstructing

4.  Question: Which description is consistent with a complex partial seizure?

5.  Question: Which disease process is infratentorial?

6.  Question: Most dysphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?

7.  Question: Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?

8.  Question: With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to

9.  Question: What are the initial clinical manifestations noted immediately after a spinal cord injury?

10.  Question: A man was in an automobile accident in which his forehead struck the windshield. A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to the _____ region.

11.  Question: Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?

12.  Question: Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia?

13.  Question: Which is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?

14.  Question: Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used to treat depression

15.  Question: What are the most common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

16.  Question: Anterior midline defects of neural tube closure cause developmental defects in the

17.  Question: The neural groove closes dorsally during the _____ week of gestational life.

18.  Question: Spina bifida occulta is characterized by a(n)

19.  Question: Intussusception causes intestinal obstruction by

20.  Question: _____ vomiting is caused by direct stimulation of the vomiting center by neurologic lesions involving the brainstem.

21.  Question: Which statement is false regarding the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?

22.  Question: Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?

23.  Question: Which of the following medications compensates for the deficiency that occurs as a result of cystic fibrosis?

24.  Question: Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of the _____ nervous system.

25.  Question: An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain, becomes irritable (colicky), and draws up the knees. Vomiting occurs soon afterward. The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool, the stools look like currant jelly. Based on these data, which disorder does the nurse suspect?