NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1

Question 1:  Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?

a. Creating a physician expert panel
b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
c. Conducting an external review of a guideline
d. Developing evidence-based tables

Question 2:  African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

a. Inhaled corticosteroids

b. Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

c. Leukotriene receptor agonist
d. Oral corticosteroid

Question 3:  Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated, the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes, and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b. The cancer is in situ, it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread otherwise cannot be evaluated.
c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size, nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated, and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

Question 4:  Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

a. Meclizine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Diamox
d. Promethazine

Question 5:  Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart that is in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
a. Filiform/digitate wart.

b. Dysplastic cervical lesion.

c. Condyloma accuminata.
d. Koilocytosis.

Question 6:  Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

a. Dementia

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Delirium

Question 7:  You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

a. “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b. “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c. “Drive to the emergency room (ER) now.”
d. “Call 911.”

Question 8:  A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
a. NSAIDs

b. Beets

c. Vitamin A
d. Red meat

Question 9:  Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?

a. Fluid restriction
b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
c. High-protein diet
d. Maintain blood pressure at 120/80

Question 10:  Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

a. Glaucoma

b. Increased sperm quality

c. Bladder cancer

d. Eczema

Question 11: A chronic cough lasts longer than:

a. 3 weeks

b. 1 month

c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Question 12: The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

a.Parkinson’s disease

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. A CVA

d. Bell’s palsy

Question 13: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

a. Tension

b. Migraine

c. Cluster

d. Stress

Question 14: Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

a. African American men

b. Scandinavian men and women

c. Caucasian women

d. Asian men

Question 15: The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

a. Pharyngitis

b. Allergies

c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

d. Perforation of the eardrum

Question 16:  Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).

Question 17: A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies.
b. Increase the dose of antibiotic.
c. Order a cytoscopy.
d. Order a different antibiotic.

Question 18: Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 19: Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?

a. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone duringpregnancy.

b. This condition only occurs on the face.

c. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

d. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 20: Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

a. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d. “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 21: A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

a. Stage 2 hypertension

b. Hypertensive

c. Normal in healthy older adults

d. Acceptable if the patient has DM

Question 22: When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, theclinician should stress that the tablets should remain in thelight-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and shouldnot be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are orcould become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottlemust be dated and discarded after how many months?

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever

Question 23: Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

a. He should stop smoking today.

b. He should stop smoking tomorrow.

c. His quit date should be in 1 week.

d. He will be ready to quit after the Frst 30 days

Question 24: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

c. Pseudohyphae
b. Leukocytes

d. Epithelial cells

Question 25: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 26: Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?

a. Permethrin cream

b. Lindane

c. Crotamiton lotion and cream

d. Ivermectin

Question 27: The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

a. Viral conjunctivitis

b. Keratoconjunctivitis

c. Bacterial conjunctivitis
d. Allergic conjunctivitis

Question 28: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

a. “Most patients have complete recovery in a few weeks to a few months.”
b. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 29: How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures and the drug level is adequate

a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
c. Annually
d. Whenever there is a problem

Question 30:  Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 31: The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

a. Repeat the test.
b. Refer to a nephrologist.
c. Measure the serum protein.
d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 32:  Which cranial nerve is afected in a patient with acerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

a. CN V

b. CN VII

c. CN IX

d. CN X

Question 33: Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray

b. Cystoscopy with biopsy

c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

Question 34: The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:

a. Biopsy.

b. Best practice.

c. Boundary.
d. Border irregularity.

Question 35: Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients mustnever drive again.

b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c. Each state has diferent laws governing driving forindividuals with a seizure disorder.

d. These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 36: Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

a. Greater than 30

b. Greater than 40

c. Greater than 50
d. Greater than 60

Question 37: The most common etiologic organism for community-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus 

Question 38: Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

a. Serum calcium

b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

d. Complete blood cell count

Question 39: A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

a. The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b. Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c. A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d. The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 40: Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
a. Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b. Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c. If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d. All of the above

Question 41: Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
b. Electrolytes
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Urinalysis

Question 42: Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she  heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?

a. It is an old wives’ tale.
b. It is used as a last resort.
c. Salicylic acid is more effective.
d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.

Question 43: What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
a. Penicillin

b. Quinolone

c. Cephalosporin
d. Macrolide

Question 44: Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

a. Perforation of the tympanic membrane

b. Otosclerosis

c. Cholesteatoma
d. Presbycusis

Question 45: Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

a. An ulcer

b. A fissure

c. Lichenification
d. An excoriation

Question 46: A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night visio0n, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c. Physical diagnosis relies on goniscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 47: The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

a. IgA

b. IgE

c. IgG
d. IgM

Question 48: A patient is seen with a sudden onset of ±ank painaccompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. Inaddition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should beadded to the list of diferential diagnoses?

a. Pancreatitis

b. Peptic ulcer disease

c. Diverticulitis

d. All of the above

Question 49: Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

a. B-type natriuretic peptide

b. C-reactive protein

c. Serum albumin

d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 50: You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

a. Baker phenomenon

b. Arnold reflex

c. cough reflex

d. Tragus reflex

Scenario Information

You are assuming the role of the project manager for a company called SuperPacks to provide a new backpack product with a built-in refrigeration pouch and radio module. Your customer for this project is the U.S. Army, Ground Forces and Special Operations. As the project manager for your team, you will be submitting to your manager a project management report.

Instructions

Work Breakdown Schedule

As the project manager, your role is to track and manage the projects you are working on; creating a Statement of Work and a Work Breakdown Structure are tools that can help you manage a project or projects. Below you will create a Statement of work consisting of the basics of the project(s) you are working on. Consider this similar to a business or marketing report, but this will define the project, project scope, and overall strategy of the project.

Part One
Statement of Work (SOW) Document:

Develop the project Statement of Work document to include the following information:

• Business need
• Product scope description
• Strategic plan

Part Two
As part of your Statement of Work for your project, you will create a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). The WBS allows for project managers to compose all tasks of the projects into smaller components to ensure a more manageable project(s).

Develop the project Work Breakdown Structure using the WBS Template.

Hi Ultimate Writer,

 

Can you help me with my homework.

5 pages, APA, use Rubric 1-6 and Friedman Family Assessment-1-17 short answers, and choose 1 from family structure and  1 from family function. Family theorist is Murary Bowen or one you choose. Thanks.

 

Toni

 

***Paper length four-five pages (***excluding title and reference pages,  and appendices-as needed).
Scholarly Family Assessment Paper	Possible Points	Your Points	Comments
1.Briefly introduce family & basic elements of assessment. Include family form & membership—i.e., who is in the family you are discussing, brief background	3
2.One type of Family Structure discussion	2
3.One type of Family Function discussion	2
4.ONE family theory (Include explanation of theory components and application to this family) List theory used here ___________	10
5.  Conclusion	2
6.  Diagrams (3):  Genogram, Ecomap, Attachment Diagram—must be labeled with any necessary key	3
Text Mechanics
7.Citations and References	3
8.Mechanics/Format/Level 1 headings/Overall impression	2
9.Grammar/Form/Spelling/Punctuation/Flow/Readability	3
10.Grading Criteria (minus 5 pts if not included)	–
Total Points for Family Theory Project—Paper Component	30

 

 

 

 

Friedman Family Assessment—Short form

 

Identifying Data

1. Family name

2. Address and phone
3. Family composition
4. Type of family form
5. Cultural (ethnic) background
6. Religious identification
7. Social class status
8. Family’s recreational or leisure-time activities

 

Developmental Stage and History of Family

9. Family’s present developmental stage
10. Extent of family developmental tasks fulfillment

11. Nuclear family history
12. History of family of origin of both parents

 

Environmental Data

13. Characteristics of home
14. Characteristics of neighborhood and larger community

15. Family’s geographic mobility
16. Family’s associations and transactions with community

17. Family’s social support system or network

 

Family Structure

18. Communication patterns
Extent of functional and dysfunctional communication
(types of recurring patterns)
Extent of emotional (affective) messages and how expressed Characteristics of

communication within family subsystems Extent of congruent and incongruent messages
Types of dysfunctional communication processes seen in family Areas of open and

closed communication
Familial and contextual variables affecting communication

19. Power structure Power outcomes

Decision-making process
Power bases
Variables affecting family power
Overall family system and subsystem power (Family power continuum placement)

20. Role structure
Formal role structure
Informal role structure
Analysis of role models (optional) Variables affecting role structure

21. Family values
Compare the family to American or family’s reference group values and/or identify

important family values and their importance (priority) in family.
Congruence between the family’s values and the family’s reference group or wider

community

Congruence between the family’s values and family member’s values Variables

influencing family values
Values consciously or unconsciously held
Presence of value conflicts in family

Effect of the above values and value conflicts on health status of family

 

Family Functions

22. Affective function
Family’s need–response patterns
Mutual nurturance, closeness, and identification Separateness and connectedness

23. Socialization function
Family child-rearing practices
Adaptability of child-rearing practices for family form and family’s situation
Who is (are) socializing agent(s) for child(ren)?
Value of children in family
Cultural beliefs that influence family’s child-rearing patterns
Social class influence on child-rearing patterns
Estimation about whether family is at risk for child-rearing problems and if so, indication

of high risk factors
Adequacy of home environment for children’s need to play

24. Health care function
Family’s health beliefs, values, and behavior
Family’s definitions of health–illness and their level of knowledge Family’s perceived

health status and illness susceptibility
Family’s dietary practices
Adequacy of family diet (recommended 3-day food history record) Function of mealtimes

and attitudes toward food and mealtimes Shopping (and its planning) practices
Person(s) responsible for planning, shopping, and preparation of meals Sleep and rest

habits
Physical activity and recreation practices (not covered earlier)
Family’s drug habits
Family’s role in self-care practices
Medically based preventive measures (physicals, eye and hearing
tests, and immunizations)
Dental health practices
Family health history (both general and specific diseases— environmentally and

genetically related)
Health care services received
Feelings and perceptions regarding health services
Emergency health services
Source of payments for health and other services
Logistics of receiving care

 

Family Stress and Coping

25. Short- and long-term familial stressors and strengths

26. Extent of family’s ability to respond, based on objective

appraisal of stress-producing situations

Coping strategies utilized (present/past)

Differences in family members’ ways of coping Family’s inner coping strategies
Family’s external coping strategies

Dysfunctional adaptive strategies utilized (present/past; extent of usage)

 

Name (last, first)

1.     (Father)

2.     (Mother)

3.     (Oldest child)

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

 

Friedman, M. M., Bowden, V. R., & Jones, E. G. (2003).  Family nursing:  Research,

theory and practice (5^th ed.).  Upper Saddle River, NJ:  Prentice Hall/Pearson Education.

 

Structure & Function—Family Theory/Friedman (2003):

 

 

STRUCTURE:  Refers to how family is organized, and how they relate to each other & to the whole.  Four interactive & interrelated dimensions:

1.     Role systems

2.     Value Systems

3.     Communication networks

4.     Power Structure

 

FUNCTION:  Refers to how families go about meeting needs of individuals and broader society.  Family functions are what a family does.  Five family function dimensions:

1.     Affective

2.     Socialization

3.     Reproductive

4.     Health care

5.     Economic

 

 

Additionally….  How a family deals with stress, coping, adaptation, and SPIRITUALITY are all important in our assessments of families.

Statistical application and the interpretation of data is important in health care. Review the statistical concepts covered in this topic. In a 750-1,000 word paper, discuss the significance of statistical application in health care. Include the following:

1. Describe the application of statistics in health care. Specifically discuss its significance to quality, safety, health promotion, and leadership.
2. Consider your organization or specialty area and how you utilize statistical knowledge. Discuss how you obtain statistical data, how statistical knowledge is used in day-to-day operations and how you apply it or use it in decision making.

Three peer-reviewed, scholarly or professional references are required.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance.

Article Analysis and Evaluation of Research Ethics

Search the GCU Library and find one new health care article that uses quantitative research. Do not use an article from a previous assignment, or that appears in the Topic Materials or textbook.

Complete an article analysis and ethics evaluation of the research using the “Article Analysis and Evaluation of Research Ethics” template. See Chapter 5 of your textbook as needed, for assistance.

While APA style is not required for the body of this assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Refer to the LopesWrite Technical Support articles for assistance.