Discussions

1.Quantitative Research Designs

In order to find the best information on a topic, not only should you develop a question and search for resources, but you should also know how to analyze the value of the resources that you identify. There are different ways to evaluate resources, such as using the hierarchy of evidence, which you explored in Week 4 of this course. Another way to evaluate resources is to consider the appropriateness of the research design. Understanding how research designs contribute to the quality of a study is essential for being able to analyze resources when conducting a literature review or locating evidence for practice.

In this Discussion, you consider the different research designs and evaluate how these designs have been used to research a specific topic. You also consider strategies for selecting an appropriate research design.

To prepare:

· Review the information in the course text on quantitative research designs. Focus on the information on, “Guidelines for Critiquing Research Designs in Quantitative Studies”.

· Select a topic from the list below and search the Walden Library to find two different quantitative research studies addressing that issue:

o Caregiver stress

o Anxiety in children

o Sleep apnea

o Depression in college freshmen

o Rural health care issues

o Post-traumatic stress syndrome

o Traumatic brain injury in veterans

o Health effects of environmental contaminants

o Bipolar disorder

o End-of-life ethical issues

o Alternative medicine

· For each of the sources that you select, identify the type of quantitative research design used, and evaluate whether it is the most appropriate approach to the research.

· Consider the ramifications of choosing an inappropriate design for a research study.

RESOURCES

Required Readings

Polit, D. F., & Beck, C. T. (2017). Nursing research: Generating and assessing evidence for nursing practice (10th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

Chapter 8, “Planning a Nursing Study”

This chapter focuses on the necessary steps for planning a research study. It describes different research designs and their key features and discusses how to plan for data collection.

Chapter 9, “Quantitative Research Design”

This chapter explores quantitative research in greater depth including the importance of experimental design and the role of randomization in conducting research. The chapter also describes quasi-experimental design and observational research.

Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012m). Quantitative research for evidence-based practice. Baltimore, MD: Author.

In this video, Dr. Kristen Mauk explains specific quantitative research designs, methods, and considerations related to her Doctorate of Nursing Practice (DNP) project. She discusses how she developed her research design and how she used sound quantitative research methods throughout her project.

2.Validity in Quantitative Research Designs

Validity in research refers to the extent researchers can be confident that the cause and effect they identify in their research are in fact causal relationships. If there is low validity in a study, it usually means that the research design is flawed and the results will be of little or no value. Four different aspects of validity should be considered when reviewing a research design: statistical conclusion validity, internal validity, construct validity, and external validity. In this Discussion, you consider the importance of each of these aspects in judging the validity of quantitative research.

To prepare:

· Review the information in Chapter 10 of the course text on rigor and validity.

· Read the method section of one of the following quasi-experimental studies. Identify at least one potential concern that could be raised about the study’s internal validity.

o Metheny, N. A., Davis-Jackson, J., & Stewart, B. J. (2010). Effectiveness of an aspiration risk-reduction protocol. Nursing Research, 59(1), 18–25.

o Padula, C. A., Hughes, C., & Baumhover, L. (2009). Impact of a nurse-driven mobility protocol on functional decline in hospitalized older adults. Journal of Nursing Care Quality, 24(4), 325–331.

o Yuan, S., Chou, M., Hwu, L., Chang, Y., Hsu, W., & Kuo, H. (2009). An intervention program to promote health-related physical fitness in nurses. Journal of Clinical Nursing, 18(10), 1,404–1,411.

· Consider strategies that could be used to strengthen the study’s internal validity and how this would impact the three other types of validity.

· Think about the consequences of an advanced practice nurse neglecting to consider the validity of a research study when reviewing the research for potential use in developing an evidence-based practice.

RESOURCES

Required Readings

Polit, D. F., & Beck, C. T. (2017). Nursing research: Generating and assessing evidence for nursing practice (10th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

• Chapter 10, “Rigor and      Validity in Quantitative Research”

This chapter introduces the concept of validity in research and describes the different types of validity that must be addressed. Key threats to validity are also explored.

 

• Chapter 11, “Specific Types      of Quantitative Research”

This chapter focuses on the specific types of quantitative research that can be selected. The focus is on the purpose of the research rather than the research design. These include such approaches as clinical trials, evaluation research, health services and outcomes research, needs assessments, or replication studies.

Cantrell, M. A. (2011). Demystifying the research process: Understanding a descriptive comparative research design. Pediatric Nursing, 37(4), 188–189.

The author of this article discusses the primary aspects of a prominent quantitative research design. The article examines the advantages and disadvantages of the design.

Schultz, L. E., Rivers, K. O., & Ratusnik, D. L. (2008). The role of external validity in evidence-based practice for rehabilitation. Rehabilitation Psychology, 53(3), 294–302.

This article details the results of a study that sought to balance concern for rigor with concern for relevance. The authors of the article derive and determine a rating format for relevance and apply it to cognitive rehabilitation.

Note: For the Discussion this week, you will need to read the method section of one of the following quasi-experimental studies. Refer to the details provided in the Week 6 Discussion area.

Metheny, N. A., Davis-Jackson, J., & Stewart, B. J. (2010). Effectiveness of an aspiration risk-reduction protocol. Nursing Research, 59(1), 18–25.

Padula, C. A., Hughes, C., & Baumhover, L. (2009). Impact of a nurse-driven mobility protocol on functional decline in hospitalized older adults. Journal of Nursing Care Quality, 24(4), 325–331.

Yuan, S.-C., Chou, M.-C., Hwu, L.-J., Chang, Y.-O., Hsu, W.-H., & Kuo, H.-W. (2009). An intervention program to promote health-related physical fitness in nurses. Journal of Clinical Nursing, 18(10), 1,404–1,411.

Walden University. (n.d.a.). Paper templates. Retrieved July 23, 2012, from http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/57.htm

This resource provides you access to the School of Nursing Sample Paper, which will serve as a template for formatting your papers.

Document: Critique Template for a Qualitative Study (Word document)

Note: You will use this document to complete this week’s Assignment.

Document: Critique Template for a Quantitative Study (Word document)

Note: You will use this document to complete this week’s Assignment.

Document: Critique Template for a Mixed-Methods Study (Word document)

Note: You will use this document to complete this week’s Assignment.

 

3. Qualitative Research Designs

For the past 2 weeks, you have focused on the features and considerations of quantitative research designs. However, quantitative designs are not appropriate for all research questions. Perhaps you are concerned with how patients react when confronted with negative test results, or you wish to study how views on a certain health topic change over time. In each of these cases, the emphasis is more on understanding the thinking and experiences of an individual or group than on numerical measurements. For these types of questions, a qualitative or mixed methods research design is the most appropriate.

For this Discussion, you focus on the different types of qualitative research designs, when they are used, and why they are important.

To prepare:

· Reflect on the comments made by Dr. Mauk in this week’s media presentation on the value of qualitative research in nursing.

· Locate the journal Qualitative Health Research in the Sage Premier database in the Walden Library.

· From this journal, select an article of interest to you that was published within the last 3 years.

· Review the information on different qualitative research designs in Chapter 21 of your course text.

· Determine what qualitative research design was used in your selected article and evaluate whether it was the best choice.

· Consider ethical issues involved in the study and how the researchers addressed them.

· Think about how using a quantitative design would have affected the type of data gathered.

RESOURCES

Required Readings

Polit, D. F., & Beck, C. T. (2017). Nursing research: Generating and assessing evidence for nursing practice (10th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

• Chapter 21, “Qualitative Research Design and      Approaches”
  This chapter introduces qualitative research designs. It provides an      overview of the different types of qualitative research and then describes      each one in greater detail, outlining how and when they should be used.

Houghton, C. E., Casey, D., Shaw, D., & Murphy, K. (2010). Ethical challenges in qualitative research: Examples from practice. Nurse Researcher, 18(1), 15–25.

This article explores ethical challenges associated with qualitative research. Specifically, the authors examine the challenges of informed consent procedures, the researcher-participant relationship, risk-benefit ratio, confidentiality, and the dual role of the nurse-researcher.

Pringle, J., Hendry, C., & McLafferty, E. (2011). Phenomenological approaches: Challenges and choices. Nurse Researcher, 18(2), 7–18.

This article examines the dilemmas faced by a researcher looking for appropriate methods and approaches for investigating the experiences of stroke survivors. In addition, this article reviews the challenges of using phenomenology as a research method.

Ryan-Nicholls, K. D., & Will, C. I. (2009). Rigour in qualitative research: Mechanisms for control. Nurse Researcher, 16(3), 70–85.

The authors of this article provide recommendations for improving the control mechanisms of methodological rigor in qualitative research methods. The text establishes the basis of criticism on the rigor of qualitative work, ways of demonstrating methodological rigor, and the definition of rigor.

Smith, J., Bekker, H., & Cheater, F. (2011). Theoretical versus pragmatic design in qualitative research. Nurse Researcher, 18(2), 39–51.

This article assesses the benefits of using a generic qualitative approach to design studies for understanding user and caregiver perspectives. The authors assess these benefits in the context of a qualitative study that focused on parents’ experience of living with children with hydrocephalus.

Walker, W. (2011). Hermeneutic inquiry: Insights into the process of interviewing. Nurse Researcher, 18(2), 19–27.

This article examines the process of interviewing from a research perspective. The authors supply personal and theoretical insights into using the research interview, along with a guide to the practicalities of interviewing.

Williamson, K. M. (2009). Evidence-based practice: Critical appraisal of qualitative evidence. Journal of the American Psychiatric Nurses Association, 15(3), 202–207.

This article highlights the importance of qualitative evidence to mental health clinicians. The author stresses that critically appraising evidence is crucial to the EBP process and provides guidelines for appraisal.

Wuest, J. (2011). Are we there yet? Positioning qualitative research differently. Qualitative Health Research, 21(7), 875–883.

This article focuses on the shifting role of qualitative research in the past two decades. The author discusses the merits and detriments of concrete distinctions, the hurdles of flexibility and convergence, and the need to develop a complete research toolbox for improving health.

Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012l). Qualitative and mixed methods research designs. Baltimore, MD: Author.

This video features Dr. Kristen Mauk’s overview of how she applied qualitative research designs and methods to her doctoral dissertation work. Dr. Mauk explains the advantages of qualitative research as well as strategies for increasing credibility when conducting qualitative or mixed methods research.

4. Planning for Data Collection

Data collection is an important part of both quantitative and qualitative research. Although the actual approach to gathering information may vary, for either research design, researchers need to plan in advance how the data will be gathered, reported, and stored, and they need to ensure that their methods are both reliable and valid. As nurses’ review research when considering a new evidence-based practice, it is important to be familiar with sound collection practices in order to ascertain the credibility of the data presented.

Consider the following scenario:

Nurses and other health care professionals are often interested in assessing patient satisfaction with health care services. Imagine that you are a nurse working in a suburban primary care setting that serves 10,000 patients annually. Your organization is very interested in understanding the patient’s point of view to help determine areas of care that can be improved. With this focus in mind, consider how you would create a survey to assess patient satisfaction with the services your organization provides. You may wish to consider variables such as the ease of accessing care, patient wait time, friendliness of the staff, or the likelihood that a patient would recommend your organization to others.

For this Discussion, you generate questions and an overall plan for data collection that would be appropriate for a patient satisfaction survey in relation to the above scenario.

To prepare:

· Consider the guidelines for generating questions presented in this week’s Learning Resources.

· Review the scenario and formulate at least five questions that you could use to evaluate patient satisfaction.

· Reflect on the different methods or instruments that can be used for gathering data described in Chapter 13 and Chapter 23 of the course text.

· Which methods or instruments would work well for the scenario? Determine an appropriate sample size for the scenario.

RESOURCES

Required Readings

Polit, D. F., & Beck, C. T. (2017). Nursing research: Generating and assessing evidence for nursing practice (10th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

• Chapter 12, “Sampling in      Quantitative Research”

This chapter introduces key concepts concerning sampling in quantitative research. This includes such concepts as a description of populations, different types of sampling and their uses, and how to determine a manageable, yet sufficient number to be included in a sample. The chapter also includes suggestions for implementing a sampling plan.

 

• Chapter 13, “Data Collection      in Quantitative Research”

Once a sampling design is complete, the next step is to collect the data, and this is the focus of Chapter 13. The chapter describes how to develop a data collection plan, and provides information about the different types of instruments that can be used, such as structured observation and biophysiologic measures.

 

• Chapter 22, “Sampling in      Qualitative Research”

The focus of this chapter is on the sampling process in qualitative research. The chapter describes the different types of sampling and when they are commonly used. Sampling techniques in the three main qualitative traditions (ethnography, phenomenological studies and grounded theory studies) are highlighted.

 

• Chapter 23, “Data Collection      in Qualitative Research”

This chapter examines the process of data collection in qualitative research as well as key issues surrounding data collection. This includes such methods as self-reporting, surveys, interviews, and personal journal keeping. The chapter also highlights important considerations when utilizing unstructured observations to gather data and how to record field notes.

Keough, V. A., & Tanabe, P. (2011). Survey research: An effective design for conducting nursing research. Journal of Nursing Regulation, 1(4), 37–44. Copyright 2011 by Elsevier Science & Technology Journals. Used with permission of Elsevier Science & Technology Journals via the Copyright Clearance Center. 

This text emphasizes the advantages of survey research. The authors describe the nuances of survey research projects, including their design, methods, analysis, and limitations.

Walden University. (n.d.a.). Paper templates. Retrieved July 23, 2012, from http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/57.htm

This resource provides you access to the School of Nursing Sample Paper, which will serve as a template for formatting your papers.

Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012b). Data collection. Baltimore, MD: Author.

Note: The approximate length of this media piece is 4 minutes.

Dr. Kristen Mauk discusses how she collected data for her DNP project in this video. She describes the details of her pre- and post-tests used to track nurses’ knowledge in a rehabilitation unit.

Optional Resources

Krainovich-Miller, B., Haber, J., Yost, J., & Jacobs, S. (2009). Evidence-based practice challenge: teaching critical appraisal of systematic reviews and clinical practice guidelines to graduate students. Journal of Nursing Education, 48(4), 186–195.

This text emphasizes the advantages of survey research. The authors describe the nuances of survey research projects, including their design, methods, analysis, and limitations.

Horsley, T., Hyde, C., Santesso, N., Parkes, J., Milne, R., & Stewart, R. (2011). Teaching critical appraisal skills in healthcare settings. Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews (Online), 11, Art. No.: CD001270.

Melnyk, B., Fineout-Overholt, E., & Mays, M. (2009). The evidence-based practice beliefs and implementation scales: Psychometric properties of two new instruments. Worldviews on Evidence-Based Nursing, 6(1), 49.

Fawcett, J., & Garity, J. (2009). Evaluating research for evidence-based nursing. Philadelphia, PA: F.A. David Company.

• Chapter 9, “Evaluation of Research Instruments      and Experimental Conditions”

 

5.Weighing the Evidence

When conducting original research, the final step researchers must complete is weighing the evidence and interpreting the meanings of their data, statistics, and analyses. This is the culmination of the research process in which all of the research methods and designs can be synthesized into a meaningful conclusion. In this stage, researchers should formulate explanations for what their data indicates, determine whether the data answers their initial research question, identify areas of uncertainty, and consider directions for further research.

In this Discussion, you focus on one of the research articles that you identified for Part 2 of the Course Project (Literature Review). You then explore the process of how the researchers generated conclusions based on their data, consider other possible interpretations of their data, and formulate ideas for further research.

To prepare:

· Review this week’s Learning Resources, focusing on how researchers find meaning in their data and generate sound conclusions. Pay particular attention to Table 2 in the article, “Study Design in Medical Research.”

· Revisit the 5 articles that you identified in Part 2 of the Course Project. Select one to consider for the purpose of this Discussion.

· Read sections of the chosen article where the data is presented, analyzed, and interpreted for meaning. What reasoning process did the researchers use to formulate their conclusions? What explanation did they give to support their conclusions? Were there any weaknesses in their analysis or conclusions?

· Consider possible alternate conclusions that the researchers could have drawn based on their data.

· Examine the findings that the article presents and consider how well they addressed the researcher’s initial question(s). What additional research could be done to build on these findings and gain a fuller understanding of the question?

RESOURCES

Required Readings

Polit, D. F., & Beck, C. T. (2017). Nursing research: Generating and assessing evidence for nursing practice (10th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer.

Review Chapter 2, Fig. 2.1

Chapter 29, “Systematic Reviews of Research Evidence: Meta-analysis, Metasynthesis, and Mixed Studies Review”

This chapter focuses on the different types of systematic reviews. The chapter discusses the advantages of this type of analysis and the steps for conducting a meta-analysis or metasynthesis.

Dingle, P. (2011). Statin statistics: Lies and deception. Positive Health, 180, 1.

In this article, the author outlines how misleading statistics are used to make false claims about the positive use of statin drugs in order to retain a market share of sales for pharmaceutical firms.

Katapodi, M. C., & Northouse, L. L. (2011). Comparative effectiveness research: Using systematic reviews and meta-analyses to synthesize empirical evidence. Research & Theory for Nursing Practice, 25(3), 191–209.

The authors of this article assert that more comparative effectiveness research (CER) is necessary to accommodate the elevated demand for evidence-based health care practices. The article supplies a summary of methodological issues relevant to systematic reviews and meta-analyses used in the process of CER.

Stichler, J. F. (2010). Evaluating the evidence in evidence-based design. Journal of Nursing Administration, 40(9), 348–351.

The quality of evidence used in EBP can vary considerably. This article highlights the necessity of critically appraising facility design research articles and using a hierarchical model to rate the strength of evidence.

Bernd, R., du Prel, J.-B., & Blettner, M. (2009). Study design in medical research: Part 2 of a series on the evaluation of scientific publications. Deutsches Aerzteblatt International, 106(11), 184–189. Retrieved from http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2695375/pdf/Dtsch_Arztebl_Int-106-0184.pdf

This article provides guidance in evaluating the study design of scientific publications for reliability and credibility. The authors suggest that the most important elements to consider are the question to be answered, the study population, the unit of analysis, the type of study, the measuring technique, and the calculation of sample size.

Walden University. (n.d.a). Paper templates. Retrieved July 23, 2012, from http://writingcenter.waldenu.edu/57.htm

This website provides you access to the School of Nursing Sample Paper, which will serve as a template for formatting your papers.

Media

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012g). Hierarchy of evidence pyramid. Baltimore, MD: Author.

This multimedia piece explains the hierarchy of evidence pyramid. The piece offers definitions and key information for each level of the pyramid.

Laureate Education (Producer). (2012n). Weighing the evidence. Baltimore, MD: Author.

In this video, Dr. Kristen Mauk provides insight about how she analyzed her data and interpreted meanings of what the data showed. She describes how she drew conclusions based on the results and how she explained unexpected findings that were contrary to her initial hypotheses.

A King in ancient times agreed to reward the inventor of chess with one grain of wheat on the first of the 64 squares of a chess board. On the second square the King would place two grains of​ wheat, on the third​ square, four grains of​ wheat, and on the fourth square eight grains of wheat. If the amount of wheat is doubled in this way on each of the remaining​ squares, how many grains of wheat should be placed on square 19​?
Also find the total number of grains of wheat on the board at this time and their total weight in pounds.​ (Assume that each grain of wheat weighs​ 1/7000 pound.)

How many grains of wheat should be placed on square 19​? _____grains

How many total grains of wheat should be on the board after the the grains of wheat have been placed on square 19​? _____grains

What is the total weight of all the grains of wheat on the board after the grains of wheat have been placed on square 19?_____ Pounds
​(Round to the nearest tenth as​ needed.)

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 1, 2, 3 & 5 

Version 1

Question 1:  Which of the following is a crucial element of developing a guideline?

a. Creating a physician expert panel
b. Reviewing the literature with ratings of available evidence
c. Conducting an external review of a guideline
d. Developing evidence-based tables

Question 2:  African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

a. Inhaled corticosteroids

b. Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

c. Leukotriene receptor agonist
d. Oral corticosteroid

Question 3:  Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

a. The tumor size cannot be evaluated, the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes, and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.
b. The cancer is in situ, it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread otherwise cannot be evaluated.
c. The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.
d. The cancer is about 5 cm in size, nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated, and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

Question 4:  Sondra’s peripheral vestibular disease causes dizziness and vertigo. Which of the following medications will help to decrease edema in the labyrinth of the ear?

a. Meclizine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Diamox
d. Promethazine

Question 5:  Mandy presents with a cauliflower-like wart that is in her anogenital region. You suspect it was sexually transmitted and document this as a:
a. Filiform/digitate wart.

b. Dysplastic cervical lesion.

c. Condyloma accuminata.
d. Koilocytosis.

Question 6:  Inattention and a sleep-wake cycle disturbance are the hallmark symptoms of?

a. Dementia

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. Parkinson’s disease

d. Delirium

Question 7:  You have taught Jennifer, age 15, about using a flow meter to assess how to manage her asthma exacerbations. She calls you today because her peak expiratory flow rate is 65%. What would you tell her?

a. “Take your short-acting beta-2 agonist, remain quiet, and call back tomorrow.”
b. “Use your rescue inhaler, begin the prescription of oral glucocorticoids you have, and call back tomorrow.”
c. “Drive to the emergency room (ER) now.”
d. “Call 911.”

Question 8:  A patient is seen in the clinic with hematuria confirmed on microscopic examination. The clinician should inquire about the ingestion of which of these substances that might be the cause of hematuria?
a. NSAIDs

b. Beets

c. Vitamin A
d. Red meat

Question 9:  Which of the following is an example of tertiary prevention in a patient with chronic renal failure?

a. Fluid restriction
b. Hemodialysis 4 days a week
c. High-protein diet
d. Maintain blood pressure at 120/80

Question 10:  Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

a. Glaucoma

b. Increased sperm quality

c. Bladder cancer

d. Eczema

Question 11: A chronic cough lasts longer than:

a. 3 weeks

b. 1 month

c. 6 months
d. 1 year

Question 12: The ‘freezing phenomenon’ is a cardinal feature of?

a.Parkinson’s disease

b. Alzheimer’s disease

c. A CVA

d. Bell’s palsy

Question 13: When administered at the beginning of an attack, oxygen therapy may help this kind of headache?

a. Tension

b. Migraine

c. Cluster

d. Stress

Question 14: Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

a. African American men

b. Scandinavian men and women

c. Caucasian women

d. Asian men

Question 15: The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

a. Pharyngitis

b. Allergies

c. Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

d. Perforation of the eardrum

Question 16:  Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

a. Severe asthma.
b. A common valvular lesion.
c. Severe hypertension.
d. A previous coronary artery bypass graft (CABG).

Question 17: A 34-year-old patient was treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and has not responded to antibiotic therapy. Which of the following actions should be taken next?
a. Send a urine specimen for microscopy looking for fungal colonies.
b. Increase the dose of antibiotic.
c. Order a cytoscopy.
d. Order a different antibiotic.

Question 18: Which statement best describes a carotid bruit?

a. It is felt with the middle three fingers over the carotid artery.
b. A bruit becomes audible when the lumen is narrowed to 1 mm or less.
c. A low-pitched bruit is a medical emergency.
d. The higher the pitch of the bruit, the higher the degree of stenosis.

Question 19: Which statement is true regarding chloasma, the ‘mask of pregnancy’?

a. It is caused by a decrease in the melanocyte-stimulating hormone duringpregnancy.

b. This condition only occurs on the face.

c. Exposure to sunlight will even out the discoloration.

d. It is caused by increased levels of estrogen and progesterone.

Question 20: Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of his head. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?

a. “You must be under a lot of stress lately.”
b. “It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?”
c. “The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism.”
d. “We’ll have to do some tests.”

Question 21: A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

a. Stage 2 hypertension

b. Hypertensive

c. Normal in healthy older adults

d. Acceptable if the patient has DM

Question 22: When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, theclinician should stress that the tablets should remain in thelight-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and shouldnot be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are orcould become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottlemust be dated and discarded after how many months?

a. 1 month

b. 3 months

c. 6 months

d. As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever

Question 23: Your patient has decided to try to quit smoking with Chantix. You are discussing his quit date, and he will begin taking the medicine tomorrow. When should he plan to quit smoking?

a. He should stop smoking today.

b. He should stop smoking tomorrow.

c. His quit date should be in 1 week.

d. He will be ready to quit after the Frst 30 days

Question 24: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

c. Pseudohyphae
b. Leukocytes

d. Epithelial cells

Question 25: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 26: Which medication used for scabies is safe for children 2 months and older?

a. Permethrin cream

b. Lindane

c. Crotamiton lotion and cream

d. Ivermectin

Question 27: The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

a. Viral conjunctivitis

b. Keratoconjunctivitis

c. Bacterial conjunctivitis
d. Allergic conjunctivitis

Question 28: Gabby, aged 22, has Bell’s palsy on the right side of her face. Her mouth is distorted, and she is concerned about permanent paralysis and pain. What do you tell her?

a. “Most patients have complete recovery in a few weeks to a few months.”
b. “Unfortunately, you’ll probably have a small amount of residual damage.”
c. “Don’t worry, I’ll take care of everything.”
d. “You may have a few more episodes over the course of your lifetime but no permanent damage.”

Question 29: How often should drug levels be monitored when a seizure medication has controlled the seizures and the drug level is adequate

a. Every 3 months
b. Every 6 months
c. Annually
d. Whenever there is a problem

Question 30:  Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 31: The result of the patient’s 24-hour urine for protein was 4.2 g/day. The clinician should take which of the following actions?

a. Repeat the test.
b. Refer to a nephrologist.
c. Measure the serum protein.
d. Obtain a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.

Question 32:  Which cranial nerve is afected in a patient with acerebrovascular accident who has difficulty chewing?

a. CN V

b. CN VII

c. CN IX

d. CN X

Question 33: Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered for a patient suspected of having bladder cancer?
a. KUB (kidneys, ureter, bladder) x-ray

b. Cystoscopy with biopsy

c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Urine tumor marker (NMP22)

Question 34: The “B” in the ABCDEs of assessing skin cancer represents:

a. Biopsy.

b. Best practice.

c. Boundary.
d. Border irregularity.

Question 35: Which statement is true regarding driving and patients with a seizure disorder?

a. Once diagnosed with a seizure disorder, patients mustnever drive again.

b. After being seizure free for 6 months, patients may drive.

c. Each state has diferent laws governing driving forindividuals with a seizure disorder.

d. These persons may drive but never alone.

Question 36: Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

a. Greater than 30

b. Greater than 40

c. Greater than 50
d. Greater than 60

Question 37: The most common etiologic organism for community-acquired pneumonia is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Beta hemolytic streptococcus
C. Mycoplasma
D. Methicillin resistant staphylococcus 

Question 38: Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause?

a. Serum calcium

b. Electrocardiogram (ECG)

c. Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

d. Complete blood cell count

Question 39: A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7?F, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

a. The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.
b. Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.
c. A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.
d. The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

Question 40: Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations?
a. Concurrent vertigo or ataxia
b. Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane
c. If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment
d. All of the above

Question 41: Which of the following tests is most useful in determining renal function in a patient suspected of chronic renal failure (CRF)?
a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
b. Electrolytes
c. Creatinine clearance
d. Urinalysis

Question 42: Marci has a wart on her hand. She says she  heard something about “silver duct tape therapy.” What do you tell her about his?

a. It is an old wives’ tale.
b. It is used as a last resort.
c. Salicylic acid is more effective.
d. It is a simple treatment that should be tried first.

Question 43: What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A b-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?
a. Penicillin

b. Quinolone

c. Cephalosporin
d. Macrolide

Question 44: Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

a. Perforation of the tympanic membrane

b. Otosclerosis

c. Cholesteatoma
d. Presbycusis

Question 45: Which of the following is “a linear crack extending from the epidermis to the dermis?”

a. An ulcer

b. A fissure

c. Lichenification
d. An excoriation

Question 46: A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night visio0n, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

a. The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.
b. The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.
c. Physical diagnosis relies on goniscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.
d. Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

Question 47: The majority of HSV-1 and HSV-2 infections are asymptomatic so that only which elevated antibody titer shows evidence of previous infection?

a. IgA

b. IgE

c. IgG
d. IgM

Question 48: A patient is seen with a sudden onset of ±ank painaccompanied by nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis. Inaddition to nephrolithiasis, which of the following should beadded to the list of diferential diagnoses?

a. Pancreatitis

b. Peptic ulcer disease

c. Diverticulitis

d. All of the above

Question 49: Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

a. B-type natriuretic peptide

b. C-reactive protein

c. Serum albumin

d. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 50: You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex?

a. Baker phenomenon

b. Arnold reflex

c. cough reflex

d. Tragus reflex

Version 2

Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth?

2 weeks

1 month

3 months

6 months

Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components.

a. Clinician education loans
b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense
c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts
d. Clinician volume of patients treated

Question 3: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression.
Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 7: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale?

a. 7

b. 9

c. 10
d. 15

Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm?

a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution
b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic
d. Saline irrigation or soapy water

Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?

a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Justice
d. Veracity

Question 12: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2)

a. Metranidazole

b. Ceftriaxone

c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2)

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering?

a. A viral syndromes
b. Lyme disease
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. Relapsing fever

Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 19: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?

a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 20: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care?

a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms
b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support
c. Identifying and managing complications of care
d. All of the above

Question 22: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 24: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 10
d. 15

Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is:

a. No activity at all.
b. A blank stare.
c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily.
d. The attack usually lasts several minutes.

Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety?

a. Acetylcholine
b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin

Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 29: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

a. Low-dose aspirin

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: A bulla is:

a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter.
b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular.
c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid.
d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent.

Question 32: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination.
As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 34: The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following?

a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood
b. Compete eradication of the virus
c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals
d. Complete abstinence

Question 35: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?
a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 36: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 37: Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc?

a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use.
b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred.
c. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention.
d. All of the above

Question 38: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 39: The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves:

a. Good liability insurance
b. A collaborating physician
c. Good documentation
d. Open communication skills

Question 40: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?

a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 41: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above

Question 42: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 43: When may confidentiality be overridden?

a. When personal information is available on the computer
b. When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company
c. When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene test
d. When a patient has a communicable disease

Question 44: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 45: The most cost-effective screening test to determine HIV status is which of the following?

a. Western Blot
b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
d. Viral load

Question 46: After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies?

a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Normal TSH
c. Low TSH
d. Undetectable TSH

Question 47: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 48: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

Question 49 : In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

a. Commitment

b. Consensus

c. Certification
d. Collaboration

Question 50: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Version 3

Question 1: In an outpatient setting, what is the most common reason for a malpractice suit?

a. Failure to treat a condition
b. Failure to diagnose correctly
c. Ordering the wrong medication
d. Failure to manage care

Question 2: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 3: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics

Question 4: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas?

a. Metranidazole

b. Ceftriaxone

c. Diflucan
d. Doxycycline

Question 5: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 6: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 7: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 8: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 9: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 10: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure

Question 11: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 12: In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents?

a. Commitment

b. Consensus

c. Certification
d. Collaboration

Question 13: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Question 14: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam?

a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side.
b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first.
c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain.
d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient.

Question 15: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

a. Overweight

b. Mild obesity

c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity

Question 16: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient?

a. Elevated uric acid level
b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Decreased urine pH
d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Question 17: Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

a. The goal of treatment is to prevent flexion and extension movements of the wrist.
b. Splints are used in carpal tunnel syndrome because they allow for free movement of the fingers and thumb while maintaining the wrist in a neutral position.
c. Corticosteroid injections are discouraged in the treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome because of the risks for median nerve damage, scarring, and infection.
d. All of the above

Question 18: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 19: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 20: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache?

a. A female in her reproductive years
b. A 40-year-old African American male
c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily
d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night

Question 21: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation?

a. 4

b. 8 d

c. 10
d. 15

Question 22: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 23: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 24: Sam, aged 65, is started on L-dopa for his Parkinson’s disease (PD). He asks why this is necessary. You tell him:

a. “L-dopa is neuroprotective.”
b. “The primary goal of therapy is to replace depleted stores of dopamine.”
c. “This is the only drug that can provide symptomatic benefit.”
d. “This is the initial monotherapy drug.”

Question 25: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find?

a. The scrotum will be dark.
b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow.
c. The scrotum will appear milky white.
d. The internal structures will be clearly visible.

Question 26: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?
a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 27: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 28: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

b. Leukocytes

c. Pseudohyphae

d. Epithelial cells

Question 29: A 22-year-old male is seen in the clinic because he found a hard lump in his testicle when performing testicular self-examination (TSE). Which of the following should be included in the list of differential diagnoses?
a. Testicular cancer

b. Inguinal hernia

c. Varicocele
d. All of the above

Question 30: The clinician should Question: the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor?

a. Low-dose aspirin

b. Thiazide diuretics

c. Ethambutol
d. All of the above

Question 31: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster?
a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body
b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body
c. A pain that is worse upon awakening
d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal

Question 32: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination?
a. Autonomy

b. Beneficence

c. Justice
d. Veracity

Question 33: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%
d. 50%

Question 34: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test

Question 35: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease?
a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
b. Elevated T4
c. Elevated TRH
d. All of the above

Question 36: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries?
a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen)
b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)
c. Silver nitrate
d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

Question 37: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 38: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?
a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 39: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 40: The clinician has instructed Sam, a 25-year-old patient with low back strain, to use NSAIDs to manage his symptoms of pain and discomfort. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate when teaching Sam about the use of NSAIDs to manage his pain?

a. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain, because long-term use of NSAIDs can result in gastrointestinal (GI) disorders such as ulcers and hemorrhage.
b. You should start with the lowest dose that is effective in managing your pain in order to avoid developing tolerance to the medication.
c. You should take the maximum recommended dose of NSAIDs so that you will not need to take narcotics to control your pain.
d. It is important to take NSAIDs on an empty stomach in order to increase absorption.

Question 41: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 42: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc?
a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine
b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain
c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue

Question 43: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?
a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 44: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 45: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question 46: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints?

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

Question 47: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?
a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound .

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 48: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding?
a. Trichomonas
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Question 49: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

a. Propranolol

b. Timolol

c. Ergotamine
d. Topiramate

Question 50: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam Version 5

Question 1: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes?

a. Once a year
b. Every 6 months
c. Every 3 months
d. Every visit

Question 2: Which drug for Alzheimer’s disease should be administered beginning at the time of diagnosis?

a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Atypical antipsychotics

Question 3: Most adult poisonings are:

a. intentional and self-inflicted.
b. accidental.
c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person.
d. not attributed to any reason.

Question 4: A 58-year-old woman presents with a breast mass. Which of the following responses by the clinician would be most appropriate?

a. “It is probably just a cyst, because that is the most common breast mass.”
b. “We will order a mammogram and ultrasound to help establish a diagnosis.”
c. “We will go ahead and schedule you for a biopsy because that is the only way to know for sure.”
d. “Because your lump is painful, it is most likely not cancer.”

Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)?

a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computed tomography (CT) scan
c. A lumbar puncture
d. There is no specific test.

Question 6: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient?

a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation
b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan
c. Send her for acupuncture treatments
d. All of the above

Question 7: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia?

a. Abrupt onset
b. Impaired attention
c. Affective changes
d. Delusions

Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

a. Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC)
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Widening pulse pressure

Question 9: Jennifer is an 18-year-old girl who comes to the emergency room after a fall during a soccer game. Jennifer explains that she fell on her left side and kept her arm out straight to break her fall. She has been experiencing severe pain and limited range of motion in her left shoulder. The clinician has diagnosed Jennifer with a dislocated shoulder. Which of the following statements are true concerning shoulder dislocation?

a. Posterior dislocations are more common than anterior dislocations.
b. There is a risk of neurovascular and neurosensory trauma, so the clinician should check for distal pulses.
c. Recurrent dislocations are uncommon and would require a greater force to result in injury.
d. Surgery is most commonly the treatment of choice.

Question 10: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain?

a. Decreased C-reactive protein
b. Hyperalbuminemia
c. Morning stiffness
d. Weight gain

Question 11: The clinician sees a patient who is 5 feet tall and weighs 150 pounds. How would the clinician classify this patient?

a. Overweight

b. Mild obesity

c. Moderate obesity
d. Morbid obesity

Question 12: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods?

a. Rice
b. Carrots
c. Spinach
d. Potatoes

Question 13: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam?

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Vagismus
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 14: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium?

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Antipsychotics
c. Anticonvulsants
d. Antidepressants

Question 15: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer?

a. Radical orchidectomy

b. Lumpectomy

c. Radiation implants
d. All of the above

Question 16: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to?

a. Gonorrhea
b. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
c. Chlamydia
d. Trichomonas

Question 17: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral
b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring
c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral
d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg + medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral

Question 18: When looking under the microscope to diagnose an intravaginal infection, you see a cluster of small and oval to round shapes. What do you suspect they are?

a. Spores

b. Leukocytes

c. Pseudohyphae
d. Epithelial cells

Question 19: Patients with a spontaneous pneumothorax should be counseled that up to what percentage may experience a reoccurrence at some point?

a. 10%

b. 20%

c. 30%
d. 50%

Question 20: John is a 16-year-old boy who presents to the emergency room after hurting his knee in a football game. He described twisting his knee and then being unable to extend it completely. John tells the clinician that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear. Which test would be most appropriate to assess for the presence of a meniscal tear?

a. Valgus stress test
b. McMurray circumduction test
c. Lachman test
d. Varus stress test

Question 21: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious?

a. An enlarged rubbery gland

b. A hard irregular gland

c. A tender gland
d. A boggy gland

Question 22: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression?

a. Gastrocnemius weakness
b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex
c. Numbness in the lateral foot
d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks

Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least:

a. 1 month.
b. 3 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 12 months.

Question 24: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease?

a. Sinus bradycardia

b. Atrial fibrillation

c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. U waves

Question 25: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact?

a. Superficial burns
b. Superficial partial-thickness burns
c. Deep partial-thickness burns
d. Full-thickness burns

Question 26: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention?

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary

Question 27: If a previously frostbitten area becomes frostbitten again after it has healed, what might occur?

a. Permanent tissue damage may occur, resulting in necrosis to that body part.
b. The area will be super sensitive.
c. The area is prone to a repeat frostbite.
d. The area is as susceptible as any other area.

Question 28: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority?

a. Pregnancy test

b. Pelvic ultrasound

c. Endometrial biopsy
d. Platelet count

Question 29: Julie, aged 50, has migraine headaches, frequent asthma attacks, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Which of the following prophylactic medications would you order for her migraines?

a. Propranolol

c. Ergotamine
b. Timolol

d. Topiramate

Question 30: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, +1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Capsacin cream
c. Vitamin B12 injections
d. Insulin

For this assignment, you will analyze an Episodic note case study that describes abnormal findings in patients seen in a clinical setting. You will consider what history should be collected from the patients, as well as which physical exams and diagnostic tests should be conducted. You will also formulate a differential diagnosis with several possible conditions. Please remember to pretend that this is an actual patient and gives as much detail as possible!

Week 10: Special Examinations—Breast, Genital, Prostate, and Rectal GENITALIA ASSESSMENT

Subjective: • CC: “I have bumps on my bottom that I want to have checked out.” • HPI: AB, a 21-year-old WF college student reports to your clinic with external bumps on her genital area. She states the bumps are painless and feel rough. She states she is sexually active and has had more than one partner during the past year. Her initial sexual contact occurred at age 18. She reports no abnormal vaginal discharge. She is unsure how long the bumps have been there but noticed them about a week ago. Her last Pap smear exam was 3 years ago, and no dysplasia was found; the exam results were normal. She reports one sexually transmitted infection (chlamydia) about 2 years ago. She completed the treatment for chlamydia as prescribed.

• PMH: Asthma •

Medications: Symbicort 160/4.5mcg •

Allergies: NKDA •

FH: No hx of breast or cervical cancer, Father hx HTN, Mother hx HTN, GERD •

Social: Denies tobacco use; occasional etoh, married, 3 children (1 girl, 2 boys)

Objective: • VS: Temp 98.6; BP 120/86; RR 16; P 92; HT 5’10”; WT 169lbs •

Heart: RRR, no murmurs • Lungs: CTA, chest wall symmetrical • Genital: Normal female hair pattern distribution; no masses or swelling. Urethral meatus intact without erythema or discharge. Perineum intact. Vaginal mucosa pink and moist with rugae present, pos for firm, round, small, painless ulcer noted on external labia • Abd: soft, normoactive bowel sounds, neg rebound, neg murphy’s, negMcBurney •

Diagnostics: HSV specimen obtained

Assessment: • Chancre

PLAN: This section is not required for the assignments in this course (NURS 6512) but will be required for future courses.

• Based on the Episodic note case study:
  • Review this week’s Learning Resources, and consider the insights they provide about the case study. Refer to Chapter 3 of the Sullivan resource to guide you as you complete your Lab Assignment.
  • Search the Walden library or the Internet for evidence-based resources to support your answers to the questions provided.
  • Consider what history would be necessary to collect from the patient in the case study.
  • Consider what physical exams and diagnostic tests would be appropriate to gather more information about the patient’s condition. How would the results be used to make a diagnosis?
  • Identify at least five possible conditions that may be considered in a differential diagnosis for the patient.

The Lab Assignment

Using evidence-based resources from your search, answer the following questions and support your answers using current evidence from the literature.

• Analyze the subjective portion of the note. List additional information that should be included in the documentation.
• Episodic note case study Analyze the objective portion of the note. List additional information that should be included in the documentation.
• Is the assessment supported by the subjective and objective information? Why or why not?
• Would diagnostics be appropriate for this case, and how would the results be used to make a diagnosis?
• Would you reject/accept the current diagnosis? Why or why not? Identify three possible conditions that may be considered as a differential diagnosis for this patient. Explain your reasoning using at least three different references from current evidence-based literature.

Rubric:

With regard to the SOAP note case study provided and using evidence-based resources from your search, answer the following questions and support your answers using current evidence from the literature:

·   Analyze the subjective portion of the note. List additional information that should be included in the documentation. 

Analyze the objective portion of the note. List additional information that should be included in the documentation. 

·  Is the assessment supported by the subjective and objective information? Why or why not? 

 What diagnostic tests would be appropriate for this case, and how would the results be used to make a diagnosis? 

 Would you reject or accept the current diagnosis? Why or why not?
·   Identify three possible conditions that may be considered as a differenial diagnosis for this patient. Explain your reasoning using at least three different references from current evidence-based literature. 

 Would you reject or accept the current diagnosis? Why or why not?
·   Identify three possible conditions that may be considered as a differenial diagnosis for this patient. Explain your reasoning using at least three different references from current evidence-based literature. 

Written Expression and Formatting – English writing standards:
Correct grammar, mechanics, and proper punctuation 

Written Expression and Formatting – The paper follows correct APA format for title page, headings, font, spacing, margins, indentations, page numbers, running heads, parenthetical/in-text citations, and reference list.