Resident Burgler, law assignment help

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Please see attached documents for help

Mr. James Binder is a suspect in a serious of residential burglaries. His fingerprints have been recovered from the glass of the broken window at the point of entry. Mr. Binder was previously charged with burglary and had served five years in prison. He is currently on parole.

As a property crime detective, you are assigned to prepare for the interview of Mr. Binder. Based on this week’s readings:

  • Develop a plan including the eight phases of interviewing.
  • Develop 10 interview questions for the interview with Mr. Binder.
  • Explain how you will record and conclude the interview.

APA

Your paper should be 3-4

pages long, not including your cover page and references, and must include at least three different sources. Take care to use credible sources, such as peer-reviewed articles, expert blogs, and the textbook.

8 Phases

Interrogation

Introduction

Presentation

Admission

Discussion

Written Statement

Guillaume Cuvelier , accounting homework help

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Assignment Questions

1. What gave Cuvelier the idea that there was a market for $10.00 vodka?

2. Are there brands you can point to that have used strategies similar to those employed by SVEDKA?

3. What is the brand positioning statement that might guide integrated marketing communications? How has the positioning evolved over time? Where is it headed?

4. What advice would you give Cuvelier for SVEDKA’s rollout strategy?

5. Which elements of his total marketing strategy is he relying on for success in this market?

Use the vodka industry data set to evaluate the effect of price and advertising on sales by answering the following:

6. Run a regression of the natural logarithm of change in sales on the natural logarithm of previous period’s prices, and the natural log of marketing expenditures on print, outdoor, and broadcasting.

7. To understand the influence of vodka quality, run a regression by adding the tier 1 and tier 2 dummy variables (that indicate whether a vodka brand belongs to first- or second-quality tiers) to the set of independent variables in question 6.

8. To understand the influence of competition and brand power, run a regression by adding the sum of sales of all the competing brands in the previous year (“lagtotalminussales”) to the independent variables in question 7.

9. To measure the sales growth of new brands compared with the existent ones, include the variable “firstintro” to the independent variable set in question 8. “Firstintro” is equal to one in the first three years after a brand is introduced and is zero elsewhere.

10. Why does the coefficient of price and advertising change in the above regressions?

11. Based on your analysis of the Vodka data, what recommendations do you have for Cuvelier regarding the marketing mix for SVEDKA?

What external areas and trends do you think strategic managers at Kohl’s have to deal with?, Homework Assignment help

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Case #3 Dressing Up

Even in good times, the department store industry is one of the toughest industries to compete in. Like many of its competitors, Kohl’s Corporation struggles to find a way to continue its successes even when faced with a drastically changed external environment. Based in Menomonee Falls, Wisconsin, Kohl’s has more than 1,100 discount department stores in 49 states. The company has aggressively moved into the western and southern United States, although nearly a third of its stores are located in the Midwest. In 2011, the company had revenues of over $18 billion (up 7 percent over 2010) and profits of over $1 billion, an increase from the previous year of almost 12.5 percent. One analyst described Kohl’s as “the best-positioned department store in this economy and one of the leading retailers with respect to inventory management, technological innovation, and merchandising and marketing execution.” To continue its successes, it’s important that Kohl’s understands the changing needs of its customers.

Over the last few years, customers had become disillusioned with the overall shopping experience at many retail establishments. Long checkout lines, missing or vague product information, out-of-stock products, incorrect price tags, and scarce and often unknowledgeable sales staff have made the shopping experience quite unpleasant. Local shopping malls with their anchor department stores lost much of their popularity with shoppers. Unlike other department stores, Kohl’s followed a different path.

Kohl’s strategic approach has been built around convenience and price. A typical Kohl’s store is a box-like structure with one floor of merchandise under inexpensive lighting where shoppers use carts or bags as they browse through the simple racks and shelves of clothing, shoes, and home apparel merchandise. The company is especially selective about its locations. Everything about the way Kohl’s does business—who it sells to and how those customers shop—hinges on where it puts its stores. Its expansion goal is designed to achieve profitable growth. In 1992, at the time of its initial public offering, it had 79 stores in the Midwest. Now, it’s in 49 states from coast-to-coast. In 2011, it had 300 stores in the Midwest, 110 stores in the Mid-Atlantic region, 147 stores in the Northeast, 143 stores in the South Central region, 183 stores in the Southeast region, and 244 stores in the West. In deciding where to place its store, Kohl’s typically avoids malls when looking at store sites, believing that its target customers—young mothers—typically don’t have the time for a long drive to a mall location and certainly don’t want the parking hassles when they do go shopping. Its approach has been free-standing buildings with smaller parking lots in retailing power centers (a retailing destination where several large, specialty brand retailers often locate together) and other kinds of strip malls. For instance, the Kohl’s store in Springfield, Missouri, is located adjacent to a Wal-Mart Super Center, a Home Depot, a McDonald’s, a Michael’s hobby and crafts store, and other casual dining restaurants.

Kohl’s merchandising strategy is oriented around three consumer lifestyles: the classic (traditional, timeless look), the modern classic (modern, classic look), and contemporary (fashion-forward, contemporary look with the latest trends). The merchandise mix is 52 percent national brands (such as Levi’s, Dockers, Reebok, Jockey, and Carter’s) and 48 percent private and exclusive brands (such as Tony Hawk, Urban Pipeline, LC Lauren Conrad, Simply Vera Vera Wang, Dana Buchman, Candie’s, and Croft & Barrow). In September 2011, Kohl’s launched its Jennifer Lopez and Marc Anthony brands. Such brands are an attempt to keep pace with “cheap chic” rival Target and with J. C. Penney. As one retail expert put it, “The chains have decided to design apparel on their own, ensuring that their lower-income customers can buy skinny jeans and satchel bags at the same time as shoppers at higher-end stores.” Kohl’s also has a significant home accessories and home furnishings selection. For instance, there’s a home furnishings collection called Casa Cristina (named for Cristina Saralegui, the host of a Spanish-language television show on Univision). It even has its own Food Network brand of dinnerware and cooking tools.

Although Kohl’s has done well in a difficult industry, it is facing some serious challenges. Competitors ranging from J. C. Penney and Sears to Macy’s have copied Kohl’s approach. And on the discount end, Wal-Mart Stores has added national brands and improved the quality of its apparel. However, none is as aggressive in competing with Kohl’s as J. C. Penney is. Penney’s new CEO, who was Apple’s top retailing executive, is shaking things up. He’s launching several new strategies including creating dozens of ‘stores within a store,’ cutting back on private labels, eliminating sales in favor of everyday low prices, and making the center of the store a ‘town square’ space for events and attractions. “The idea is to make stores more inviting, highlight brand names, and gain more control over pricing.” Despite these changes at J. C. Penny, in the latest (early January 2012) Harris Poll, Kohl’s edged out J.C. Penny as the top choice for customer relationships. An analyst said, “While neck and neck with J.C. Penny on several metrics, what really stands in Kohl’s favor is the customer’s perception of the unique benefits offered by the department store.” Although Kohl’s seems to be on a winning streak, competitor actions and other external trends will keep strategic decision makers on their toes for a while!

Discussion Questions

  1. What external areas and trends do you think strategic managers at Kohl’s have to deal with?

  2. If you were a strategic decision maker at the headquarters of Kohl’s, what types of external information would you want? What if you were a Kohl’s local store manager? What types of external information would you want?

  3. Go to Kohl’s web site [www.kohls.com] and find the latest Kohl’s Fact book. (Hint: Look at the Investor Relations section.) What strategic initiatives is the company pursuing? Take one of those strategic initiatives and discuss how it will help Kohl’s exploit external trends.

  4. What industry/competition opportunities and threats do you see in this case?

SWOT analysis is an analysis of an organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. It is used to help managers answer several fundamental questions related to the planning function. A SWOT begins with an analysis of the general business environment. The external analysis attempts to identify opportunities and competitive and environmental threats. Since these are based on factors that are external to the firm, they are more difficult to assess.

With this information in mind and after conducting research, complete the following:

  1. Read Case Study #3 at the end of Chapter 3
  2. Briefly answer the questions from the text in reference to Case Study #3 and explain the rationale behind your answers (use supporting information as needed)

Please repond to the following Discussion Week 3 BUS 309

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Discussion Week 3

Battling Over Bottled Water Please respond to the following.

  • Read Case 3.2: Battling Over Bottled Water, located here or on page 109 in your textbook. Nestlé holds a 99-year lease for the land that the Sanctuary Spring sits on. While lease-holders are generally understood to be able to make full use of their land, when public resources are involved, they are limited to “reasonable uses.” Review the case study and formulate an argument either supporting or challenging this distinction. Support your reasoning by addressing key ways in which benefits and burdens are being distributed between Nestlé and the community in this case.

Health Management Information System

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PART 1

 

The genesis of Health Management Information Systems (HMIS) goes back to the roots of numerous areas, including:

[removed] computing privacy.
[removed] information economics
[removed] multidimensional data sets.
[removed] medical policies.

 

An information-inquiring culture has transparent:

[removed] information discovery.
[removed] Core values.
[removed] direct reports.
[removed] accounting and finances.

 

An information-discovery culture ensures:

[removed] critical information about due processes.
[removed] sharing of insights freely and encourages employees to collaborate.
[removed] sensitivity for privacy.
[removed] giving up the power of controlling others.

 

The data input phase includes:

[removed] data acquisition and data verification.
[removed] data storage and data classification.
[removed] data retrieval and data presentation.
[removed] data retrieval only

 

A healthcare services organization may develop or adopt various types of cultures, including:

[removed] an information-functional culture
[removed] an information-secrecy culture.
[removed] an information-blast culture.
[removed] an information-hording culture.

 

 

 

Computational functions support:

[removed] further data analysis.
[removed] data transfer.
[removed] sensitive data.
[removed] decreasing costs.

 

Emerging trends that are encouraging heathcare executives to become interested in developing innovative, integrative, and cost-beneficial HMIS solutions include:

[removed] wireless, user-friendly portables.
[removed] tape recordings.
[removed] X-ray films.
[removed] accessible records.

 

The majority of computerized patient record systems have capabilities to reject invalid data with the use of techniques including:

[removed] batched totals and range checks.
[removed] mechanically processed coded data.
[removed] data integrity.
[removed] patient demographics.

 

As a trustworthy leader, the senior executive must have the ability to:

[removed] exude trust from their direct reports and corresponding followers.
[removed] develop a “top-down” working relationship with followers.
[removed] articulate how or why certain things are or are not being executed without explanations.
[removed] dictate to others on how to manage their time.

 

The executive largely responsible for articulating the organizational vision and mission is the:

[removed] COO
[removed] CMO
[removed] CTO
[removed] CEO

 

Shared values portray:

[removed] the total competencies of the organization.
[removed] the interactive coordination among the hired employees.
[removed] the common goals, objectives, and beliefs of most members of the organization.
[removed] morals of the employees of an organization.

 

The role of the CEO or CIO to oversee the use of HMIS in any healthcare services  organization requires that the individual has been trained and has experience and mastered a certain set of:

[removed] rules and laws.
[removed] strategic, tactical, and operational IT competencies.
[removed] department goals and strategies.
[removed] efficient business processes.

 

The executive who oversees the daily heathcare services delivery operations is the:

[removed] CEO
[removed] COO
[removed] CMO
[removed] DFO

 

Because it is an art form, motivation requires that the CIO have special skills and elevated expertise, including:

[removed] turning over goal setting responsibilities to the employees.
[removed] allowing employees to position specific individuals in the appropriate spaces throughout the organization.
[removed] being as specific as possible when detailing the goals and objectives for their employees.
[removed] assuming staff will institute a collaborative spirit with a strong sense of team belonging.

 

Defensive strategies come into play when:

[removed] an organization is to be constantly at the leading edge of its product offering.
[removed] the uniqueness of certain aspects of the business activities is maintained.
[removed] cost advantage is gained through economies of scale and cost-effectiveness.
[removed] when the stage of the industry and/or product life cycle is experiencing a steady decline due to its ongoing maturity.

Real-world HMIS practices:

[removed] can be learned by reading cases in textbooks.
[removed] are not necessary for learning.
[removed] can be learned by reading published theories.
[removed] are not easily replicated.

 

URL stands for:

[removed] uniform relocation lab.
[removed] universal resource locators.
[removed] uniform restructuring link
[removed] usability relocation link

 

For breast cancer patients who may have distinct needs for care and coping, several researchers have found that these patients:

[removed] typically do not seek information regarding treatment plans.
[removed] actively engage in online and interpersonal interactions via support groups.
[removed] tend to disincline investigating medical progress.
[removed] do not require the normal level of emotional support from medical staff.

 

Online health information seeking should be of concern for health administrators for myriad reasons, including that it:

[removed] increases social isolation often associated with stigmatizing medical conditions.
[removed] reduces patient-physician interactions.
[removed] increases deficiencies in the health insurance and registration processes.
[removed] engages faster diffusion of medical findings.

 

The Internet is not void of particular weaknesses for underrepresented population information, such as:

[removed] fragmentation of health information.
[removed] verifiable facts.
[removed] credible sources.
[removed] wealth of information.

 

The primary purposes of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF), Internet Architecture Board (IAB), and Internet Engineering Steering Group (IESG) are to:

[removed] restructure the Internet.
[removed] function as Internet regulating bodies.
[removed] develop an Internet hub infrastructure.
[removed] develop a network system.

Online activities include:

[removed] spreadsheet development.
[removed] ACCESS reports.
[removed] communications.
[removed] PowerPoint presentations.

Determinants of site success such as Trusera (invitation only), DailyStrength, PatientsLikeMe, and Caring.com rest with a triad of:

[removed] blog ratings, site ratings, and community forum ratings.
[removed] member numbers, daily hits, and word of mouth.
[removed] theory, research, and practice.
[removed] accuracy, veracity, and verifiability.

Online extraction of relevant health information by both experts and laypersons have proliferated due to:

[removed] decreased computing literacy.
[removed] less availability.
[removed] advances in Web-based interface technology.
[removed] extremely high cost.

The Internet has facilitated the use of information and communication technology (ICT) to:

[removed] discourage the constant use of the Internet for medical information.
[removed] sustain patients with a variety of illnesses.
[removed] increase social isolation.
[removed] treat diseases.

PART 2

Customer relationship management (CRM) software must be designed with the following in mind.

[removed] An in-depth recognition of its customers’ specific needs.
[removed] Strategic communication is for different types of software.
[removed] Enhancement of existing programs and services.
[removed] Creative services that would progress and fulfill the organizational long-term goals.

 

The goal for ERP is:

[removed] to achieve single data-entry points throughout the organization.
[removed] to maintain non-standardized,  unique processes.
[removed] to succeed even with the lack of business process reengineering.
[removed] to maintain the use of paper-based orders.

 

The primary goals of supply chain management (SCM) are:

[removed] to achieve increased efficiencies with regard to information flows and exchanges between the organization and its external parties.
[removed] to satisfy the need for economies of scale.
[removed] to increase the volume of daily purchasing.
[removed] to decrease efficiencies with regard to information flows and exchanges.

 

How can ERP software be used to facilitate data integration?

[removed] Maintaining separate processes as previously developed.
[removed] Using insurance companies to sort it out.
[removed] Amalgamating existing business processes in an organization.
[removed] Using health professional associations.

 

Primary storage, or main memory is:

[removed] the central processing unit (CPU) of a computer.
[removed] the program instructions and data provides the CPU with a working storage area.
[removed] random-access memory (RAM).
[removed] read-only memory (ROM).

 

 

A key high-profile enterprise software system that has emerged in the HMIS landscape is:

[removed] supply chain management (SCM).
[removed] just-in-time (JIT) inventory.
[removed] health maintenance organization (HMO).
[removed] Internet explorer (IE).

 

What has often been referred to as the “brain” or “heart” of a computer?

[removed] CPU
[removed] RAM
[removed] CU
[removed] ROM

 

Customer relationship management (CRM) is a major HMIS enterprise software system that:

[removed] has a predetermined budget.
[removed] can enable owners to personalize their heathcare services benefits online.
[removed] has a set listing of highly recommended and non-participating physicians and specialists.
[removed] does not maintain research information on prescription drugs.

 

Issues that may arise with a RHINO setup like the Mayo Clinic’s include problems with:

[removed] maintaining separate processes as previously developed.
[removed] using insurance companies to iron out problems.
[removed] difficulties with patients.
[removed] data shadowing and the need for creating interfaces to communicate among disparate platforms and software.

 

The rapid advancements of e-commerce and managed care placed new demands on the healthcare industry in the 1990s to:

[removed] establish information infrastructures that work with the Foxfire browser.
[removed] establish information infrastructures that facilitate timely and interoperable patient formation.
[removed] establish information that works with Internet explorer (IE).
[removed] establish information that does not contain firewalls.

 

Consolidation, sometimes purported as a “market-sheltering activity” occurs when:

[removed] the central processing unit (CPU) of a computer is shared.
[removed] the program instructions and data provides the CPU with a working storage area.
[removed] two or more comparable healthcare services organizations combine to augment or preserve market power.
[removed] read-only memory (ROM) is shared.

 

One definition of community health information networks (CHIN) is:

[removed] A network of stakeholders within a defined region who are committed to improving the quality, safety access, and efficiency of healthcare through the use of HIT.
[removed] A special interest group (SPIG).
[removed] Improved efficiency and effectiveness of healthcare services delivery.
[removed] A not-for-profit organization.

 

One definition of regional health information organizations (RHINO):

[removed] A network of stakeholders within a defined region who are committed to improving the quality, safety access, and efficiency of healthcare through the use of HIT.
[removed] A special interest group (SPIG).
[removed] Improved efficiency and effectiveness of healthcare services delivery.
[removed] For-profit organization.

 

Open systems, as characterized by the Internet, electronic data interchange (EDI), and extranets, offer:

[removed] two-way access for external agencies.
[removed] eliminate the need for the exchange of standard-formatted transactions.
[removed] no requirement for electronic ordering.
[removed] no requirement for electronic invoicing through EDI.

 

For practice management systems delivered from private healthcare organizations and hospitals, electronic billing and patient scheduling are being developed for numerous benefits, including:

[removed] keeping manual follow-up procedures.
[removed] reducing, or possibly eliminating, all paper-based forms for which healthcare services organizations are especially vulnerable.
[removed] increase the accuracy of billing/coding.
[removed] eliminating electronic order processing.

 

What is the ultimate and primary goal for the CHIN evolution and the RHINO movement?

[removed] Consumer privacy.
[removed] Internal policies.
[removed] The development of Health maintenance organizations (HMOs).
[removed] The establishment of a national health information network (NHIN).

 

EHR will be one of the most costly project expenditures that a healthcare services organization will undertake, with regard to the investments of time and money and the resultant challenge of returns on investments (ROI). This is due to:

[removed] the significance of the returns to be realized from an EHR implementation remains a concern for many healthcare executives.
[removed] the program instructions provide the CPU with a working storage area.
[removed] two or more comparable healthcare services organizations combine to augment or preserve market power.
[removed] read-only memory (ROM) is shared.

 

A Web-based PHR system will empower patients with:

[removed] remote patient monitoring for older patients that cannot be added since patients do not need to be concerned about their chronic states of health.
[removed] access to their own records and help them take a more active role in managing their own health.
[removed] privacy since physicians will be the only people allowed to view records.
[removed] accessibility for all caregivers since the records are open for viewing.

 

Possible risks in trusting all your personal health records with a carrier such as Google Health include:

[removed] a network of stakeholders within a defined region who are committed to improving the quality, safety access, and efficiency of healthcare through the use of HIT.
[removed] information that could be sold to, or mined by, people from organizations that are unknown to the patient.
[removed] improved efficiency and effectiveness of healthcare services delivery.
[removed] a not-for-profit organization could safe keep your records.

 

Healthcare databases have been in existence for as long as there have been data storage devices, and in addition to a computer data-processing database, they can include.

[removed] the volumes of patient files lining the shelves of a physician’s clinic.
[removed] healthcare organizational policies and decisions.
[removed] query languages such as SQL.
[removed] processes as outlined in a documentation manual.

 

Google Health pays particular attention to security and privacy issues, which clearly restricts:

[removed] infrastructures that work with the Foxfire browser.
[removed] information that facilitates timely and interoperable patient data.
[removed] the transmission or release of the subscriber’s information to third parties without the subscriber’s consent.
[removed] information that does not contain firewalls or other protections.

 

When combined with various other workflow tools, computerized physician order entry (CPOE) can also be useful in providing information about:

[removed] manual follow-up procedures.
[removed] reducing paper-based forms.
[removed] patient scheduling.
[removed] eliminating electronic orders.

 

Electronic health records can:

[removed] improve upon unique non-standardized processes.
[removed] eliminate single data-entry points throughout the organization.
[removed] significantly increase the risk for medical errors.
[removed] enhance the quality of healthcare services delivery.

 

Closely related to, and often functioning as part of, EHR, a computerized physician order entry (CPOE) system is basically:

[removed] a competitive system within an amalgamation of systems.
[removed] an internal policies document approved by the Board of Directors.
[removed] automated order-entry system that captures the instructions of physicians with regard to the care of their patients.
[removed] information on research of prescription drugs.

 

Three categories of healthcare data are required, almost universally, by healthcare services
organizations for supporting their planning and decision-making activities, and one of these is:

[removed] vital statistics.
[removed] environmental statistics.
[removed] census statistics.
[removed] consensus statistics.

Current Market Conditions Competitive Analysis paper help

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You have been given the responsibility of working with your organization’s CEO to do a competitive market analysis of the potential success of one of their existing products.

Select your organization and a product produced by that organization from IndustryWeek.

Write a 2,100-word analysis of the current market conditions facing your product, making sure that you address the following topics:

  • Define the type of market in which your selected product will compete, along with an analysis of competitors and customers.
  • Analyze any comparative advantages and international trade opportunities.
  • Explain the factors that will affect demand, supply, and prices of that product.
  • Examine factors that will affect Total Revenue, including but not limited to:
  • Price elasticity of demand
  • Factors that influence productivity
  • Various measures of costs, including opportunity costs
  • Externalities and government public policy and their effect on marginal revenue and marginal cost
  • Recommend how your organization can maximize their profit-making potential and increase their presence within the market served by the product.

Use a minimum of 3 peer-reviewed sources from the University Library.

Needs APA format with reference page

unconsented touching

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1. Review the case Informed Consent in Louisiana – Lugenbuhl v. Dowling.

2. First, identify the elements of the legal citation- plaintiff, defendant, court, location of case etc.

3. Explain the meaning and importance of the doctrine of informed consent.

4. Discuss why we have this doctrine and what would happen if we did not.

5. Discuss the two elements that must be present for informed consent to exist under the law.

6. In a legal case of negligence and liability explain why the basis for negligence may be battery, unconsented touching, or breach of a duty imposed on the doctor to disclose material information.

7. Explain the elements that must be present for a patient to give informed consent.

 

1. Limit your responses to a maximum of four pages, not including title and reference list pages.

2. Be sure to utilize at least 3-4 scholarly references to support your discussions.

3. Be sure to properly cite your references within the text of your assignment and listed at the end.

4. Be sure to apply critical thinking skills to the write-up of your assignment, especially numbers 3, 4, and 5 above.

Use APA format, 12 PT, Double-spaced

I will provide the references

Technology Research Project

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– Review the articles.   
– Create a Power Point, prezzi or whatever creative medium you are 
comfortable with to demonstrate the following:

  • Define “Digital Age”
  • What are the implications for education? Students, teachers, and administrators
  • What challenges are we/will we face?
  • What do we need to do differently?
  • What are the implications for professional development?
  • Next Steps—Where do we go from here?

Strategic Real Estate Business Plan, business and finance homework help

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The goal of the 10- to 12-page Final Paper is to develop an actionable strategic plan that can be implemented in a real estate-related business. This Paper should include critical elements: Develop a mission and vision statement, Produce an environmental scan analysis, Conduct competitive advantage analysis, Analyze market segmentation, Prepare a financial analysis, Analyze internal controls, Recommend implementation strategies and Evaluate measurable outcomes. Paper Must develop the strategic plan with critical thought, using headings and spreadsheets as appropriate, to provide clarity and structure to the paper. Must use at least five sources appropriate to the development of a real estate-strategic plan.

cardiac arrhythmias

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Question

Question 1

More than half of all cardiac arrhythmias involve the atria.

True

False

Question 2.

What are the most common symptoms caused by tachyarrhythmias?

Sweating

Thirst

Palpitations

Headaches

Question 3.

For women with known CAD and diabetes, which is most appropriate to assess CAD risk?

ETT

Coronary bypass surgery

Coronary catheterization

ETT with imaging

Question 4.

Of the following, which is the best answer when asked for an advantage of echocardiogram exercise testing over thallium stress testing?

Does not depend on operator experience

Costs are the same

Results are available more quickly

Doesn’t matter because there are no advantages

Question 5.

Your patient has uncomplicated pyelonephritis. In deciding your recommended treatment, you consider the most common pathogenic reason for this diagnosis. What pathogen accounts for the majority of pyelonephritis?

E. Coli

Gardnerella Vaginalis

Mycoplasma Hominis

Chlamydia

Question 6.

What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship?

Ensures that providers honor their commitments to the patient

Obligates the provider to a one-on-one relationship with the individual

Ensures that patients receive whatever they want

Maintains costs in the healthcare arena

Question 7.

In CAD, after both systolic and diastolic dysfunction have occurred, the typical pattern of chest pain and related EKG changes occur. During an EKG, you should expect to see ST-segment and T-wave changes that are central to demonstration of ischemia occurring relatively late in the ischemic cascade. Is this true or false?

True

False

Question 8.

The leads on the ECG showing ischemic changes during or immediately after an ETT can correlate roughly to the culprit artery or arteries with significant CAD. Is this true or false?

True

False

Question 9.

Skin cancer is the most common malignant neoplasm in males in the US. What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men greater than 50 years of age?

Prostate cancer

Lung cancer

Lymphoma

Lupus

Question 10.

What ECG changes can reduce the specificity of the ETT?

Exercise induced bundle branch blocks

Paced rhythm and resting bundle branch block

Paced rhythm and exercise induced bundle branch blocks

Low voltage up sloping of the ST-segment

Question 11.

You have confirmed that your patient does indeed have an abdominal aortic aneurysm. In teaching your patient about symptoms to report immediately to the vascular surgeon, you instruct the patient to report which of the following?

Newly diagnosed diabetes

Back pain or flank pain

Visual disturbances

Headaches

Question 12.

What is one of the common causes of a Saccular Abdominal Aneurysm?

Poor kidney functioning

Age

Drugs: illicit and prescribed

Trauma

Question 13.

The diagnostic accuracy of stress testing is decreased among women compared to men for what reasons?

Women having thinner ventricular and septal muscles

Women usually have single vessel or non-obstructive disease

Women cannot exercise as vigorously as men

Women typically have multiple vessel disease

Question 14.

Population disease management is a term used to describe:

High specificity disease states

Low specificity diseases states

Low prevalence specific diseases

High prevalence specific diseases

Question 15.

You receive a report back on the suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm for your patient. It confirms your suspicion of AAA. The report describes the aneurysm as a symmetric weakness of the entire circumference of the aorta. You know that this form of aneurysm is referred to as what kind of aneurysm?

Thoracic aneurysm

Budging sac aneurysm

Saccular aneurysm

Fusiform aneurysm

Question 16.

Your practice partner just ordered an exercise echocardiography 2DE for a patient with suspected cardiovascular risk. This patient has known resting wall motion abnormalities.Why would this not be the best test to assess this patient’s cardiac risk?

Sensitivity is increased

Sensitivity is decreased

Specificity is increased

Specificity is decreased

Question 17.

Your 60-year old male patient arrives for his appointment. He complains of general malaise and fever over the past several days with low back pain. He also states that he is getting up at night more often to urinate and never feels his bladder is completely empty.What differential diagnosis should you consider in this patient?

Acute viral prostatitis

Stomach virus

Acute bacterial prostatitis

BPH only

Question 18.

We all know that collaboration is integral to becoming a successful nurse practitioner. Among collaborations, however, only one can be considered as the most important. While each example below is important, which is the most important collaboration? The one that occurs:

Between the nurse practitioner and their physician mentor

Between two healthcare providers about a single patient

Between the patient and their family

Between the patient and the nurse practitioner

Question 19.

The sensitivity of a routine ETT is effort dependent. What physiological changes occur during effort in the routine ETT?

Rapid heart rates and coronary artery narrowing

Decrease in coronary blood flow

Decreased heart rate and increased systolic blood pressure

Increased coronary flow and increased systolic blood pressure

Question 20.

A 47-year old female with general complaints of fatigue and shortness of breath shows up in your clinic as a referral from another nurse practitioner. Several blood tests and chest x-rays have been completed without any diagnosis or outstanding abnormalities.You decide to order an ETT despite the fact that the recent ECG does not show any abnormalities. From the answers below, which would be the best answer to support your decision?

You are out of other options

CAD in women is under diagnosed

To please the patient

Women present with the same pattern of CAD as do males

Question 21.

Your patient underwent an exercise stress test for CAD. There is significant elevation of the ST-segment.What do you need to know about these changes to manage your patient’s care?

: This patient needs to see someone more experienced in treatment of CAD

These changes are predictive of myocardial infarction

These changes have minimal predictive value for CAD

These changes predict dire outcomes

Question 22.

When there is a consequential loss of structural integrity of the abdominal aorta, the resulting issue is what condition?

Bloated stomach

Kidney failure

Bleeding ulcers

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Question 23.

You see a 60-year old African American male in your clinic with a recent diagnosis of hypertension. He asks you what he should restrict in his diet, and is particularly interested in limiting his sodium intake. What amount of sodium intake would you recommend on a daily basis for this patient?

1.5 g/day

No added table salt

3.0 g/day

2.3 g/day

Question 24.

Why would inability to exercise reduce the specificity of the routine ETT?

Produces QRS changes that cannot be interpreted

Produces persistent ST-segmental changes and T-wave abnormalities

Causes ST-segment changes and P-wave abnormalities

Will not produce any changes in ECG

Question 25.

By standard criteria, how is a positive stress test defined?

Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 1mm

Down sloping of the ST-segment at the J point of the QRS

Development of a horizontal or down sloping ST-segment depression of 10mm

Upward sloping ST-segment measured at the J point of the QRS

Question 26.

What are the two types of bradycardia recognized by the American Heart Association?

Relative and absolute

Absolute and pending

Refractory and non-refractory

Relative and dynamic

Question 27.

You see a 75-year old female in your clinic today complaining of urinary incontinence. She is otherwise healthy based upon her last visit. She states that her mother told her this would happen someday because it happens to every woman at some age. What would you tell this patient?

This happens to all women as they age

No need to worry. This is normal. Your mother was correct.

This is not an expected condition related to aging.

This happens to men as well and most women before your age.

Question 28.

What do you know regarding ischemia that is confined to only the posterior and or lateral segments of the left ventricle?

ETT cannot be used for detection

Difficult to detect by ETT

Requires both for detection of changes by ETT

Easier to detect by ETT

Question 29.

What three conditions definitely alter the results of echocardiography in determining CAD?

Obesity, rapid heart rate and lung disease

Diabetes, kidney disease and tooth decay

Obesity, slow heart rates and hypertension

Previous MI, hypotension and diabetes

Question 30.

Specifically, when is an ETT considered to be negative?

Patient has ST-segmental changes with down sloping of greater than 1 mm at 50% of age-predicted maximum heart rate

Patient exercises to 85% of age predicted maximum heart rate without evidence of induced ischemia

Patient exercises to 20% maximum age-predicted heart rate without induced ischemia

Patient exercises until tired without evidence of induced ischemia

Question 31.

All patients, even is asymptomatic, require risk stratification according to the Farmingham risk score. At present, ACC/AHA guidelines, however, do not normally support stress tests for asymptomatic patients without addiitonal justification. From the list below, what could be used to justify a ETT in an asymptomatic patient?

A smoker of 3 weeks

A member of congress

Sedentary and wishes to begin aggressive exercise

Developmentally challenged

Question 32.

BPH is not a risk factor for Prostate cancer. Is this statement true or false?

True

Question 33.

Spread of genital herpes only occurs during the time period with active lesions. Is this statement true or false?

True

False(not confirm)

Question 34.

Abdominal aortic aneurysms are often asymptomatic. What percent of AAA’s are discovered in asymptomatic patients?

40%

20%

10%

75%

Question 35.

Improvements in the delivery and management of healthcare are necessary if we are to improve the overall health of this nation’s population. Which of the following are identified in your readings as strategic in the movement to improve the healthcare system?

President and Congress

Population management and healthcare practice

Socialized medicine and governmental controls

Monetary savings and limited disruption in healthcare delivery

Question 36.

What are the two main types of heart failure?

Systolic and diastolic

Hopeless and severe

Left sided and main

End diastolic and pressure related

Question 37.

The majority of all strokes are non-ischemic. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 38.

When a murmur is first heard, it is important to determine if it is due to a pathological condition or benign. For an experienced practitioner, it is always easy to determine the cause of a murmur merely by listening to the sound. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 39.

Maintenance of an Isometric ST-segment during exercise is the response of?

A normal heart

Hypo profusion

An abnormal heart

CAD

Question 40.

The goal of self-management is to specifically do what?

Engage patients in their own care

Engage insurance providers in patient care

Engage providers in patient care

Engage government in greater involvement in patient care

Question 41.

Your 56-year old patient presents with bradycardia with a rate of 55 and first degree AV block. The patient is hemodynamically stable and is not experiencing any syncope or chest pain. History includes previous myocardial infarction. Home medications include beta blockers, daily aspirin. Lab work is non-significant for electrolyte imbalance. You decided to treat this patient for the arrhythmia to prevent future destabilization. From the choices below, which might be the appropriate first measure to consider?

Add digitalis to control the heart rate

Consult cardiologist immediately for guidance

Discontinue Beta Blocker and replace with another therapy if necessary

Atropine injections

Question 42.

Your patient is morbidly obese and cannot sit on a bicycle or walk a treadmill. She also has marked and severe emphysema. You need to make an assessment of the risk of significant CAD and your patient’s family says that their relative had their diagnosis based on an ultrasound echocardiography. What facts would influence your decision regarding the family request for echo assessment?

Sensitivity would be increased because of lung disease

Specificity would be increased because of obesity

Sensitivity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease

Specificity would be reduced because of obesity and lung disease

Question 43.

You are in the clinic with your mentor observing the Echocardiogram exercise test of a 45-year old male that has been experiencing slight chest pressure almost daily during exercise.While observing your patient, your mentor points out that the left ventricle wall is thinning and there is some hyperkinesias of the ventricular wall. From your time in the clinic, you know that this test will be considered to be what type of result?

Negative

Impossible

Positive

Non-readable

Question 44.

Your patient is newly diagnosed with persistent Atria Fibrillation. You consider electrocardioversion. Before undergoing this procedure you should order the following examination to assess thrombus risk.

X-Ray of chest

Tranesophageal echocardiography

Ultrasound of chest

CT Scan

Question 45.

Tachyarrhythmias cause a drop in commonly blood pressure, cardiac output, syncope, shortness of breath, and chest pain. What phenomenon most often occurs during these arrhythmias to cause these symptoms?

Shortened diastole

Lengthened diastole

Lengthened systole

Shortened systole

Question 46.

At what age is atria fibrillation most common?

In childhood

60 years or older

30 years

45 years

Question 47.

Automaticity is a property common to all cardiac cells. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 48.

Your patient has a maximum age-predicted heart rate of 180. During the exercise he reaches a heart rate of 140 and then states he can no longer exercise. You see evidence of ischemic changes on the ECG. This would be predictive of what condition?

Stroke

Significant CAD

Impending death

Low risk of CAD

Question 49.

You tell a patient that he has a murmur. He says he has been told this before, but wonders what causes the unique sounds of a murmur. Which of the following would be your best option?

Turbulent flow of blood

High pressures caused from HTN

There is no reason, it just happens

Almost always from a sclerotic valve

Question 50.

What is the treatment of choice for uncomplicated community-acquired cystitis?

TMP-SMZ

Any antibiotic will treat this diagnosis

Amoxicillin

Penicillin

Question 51.

Any patient presenting with symptomatic bradycardia should be referred

to a cardiologist for management. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 52.

Encouragement of patients to take effective actions in their own healthcare refers to the concept of:

Self-management support

Interprofessional support

Physician or provider-driven care

Family care givers

Question 53.

You are considering adding an adjunctive form of testing to detect wall motion abnormalities during the ETT.You select Echocardiography as the added testing. You choose this test because you know that echocardiography does what when added to a standard ETT?

Enhances sensitivity and specificity of CAD detection

Enhances sensitivity while reducing specificity of CAD detection

Enhances specificity while not changing sensitivity of detection for CAD

You like pretty pictures of wall motion

Question 54.

Medicaid is mandated to be provided by each state through federal codes. Each state must offer Medicaid exactly as the federal government prescribes. True or false?

True

False

Question 55.

What sexually transmitted disease is most widespread in the USA today?

Chlamydia

Gonorrhea

Syphilis

HIV/AIDS

Question 56.

Your preceptor decides to add Doppler Flow studies to the echocardiogram exercise test for a patient with a recent history of a holistic murmur best auscultated at the left steral boarder. The patient has no history of cardiac surgeries. He asks you what might be the main advantages of adding Doppler Flow for this particular patient. You know from your readings that there are several reasons to add Doppler Flow and below are listed more than one correct reason. Your best response for this specific case, however, would be that Doppler Flow studies would be of what additive value during the echocardiogram study?

Detect and evaluate blood shunting from a septal defect

No advantage is seen for this patient

Gives better screen shots of wall abnormalities

Provides assessment of prosthetic valve function

Question 57.

Sexual partners of a patient with a diagnosed STI should always be examined and treated. Is this statement true or false?

True

False

Question 58.

Your patient presents with tachycardia. The QRS is measured at 0.10 seconds. Which of the following tachycardias would be an appropriate conclusion based on this information alone?

Ventricular tachycardias

Premature junctional contractions

Atria fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation

Question 59.

A 65-year old white male arrives in your clinic with general complaints of slight abdominal discomfort. He has a known history of smoking two packs per day for 40 years and hypertension. He also has COPD and has been treated numerous times with oral steroids. You consider several optional diagnoses. Of the ones listed below, which should be included as a potential top suspect in your choice of diagnosis?

Chronic bowel obstruction

Meglacolon

Appendicitis

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

Question 60.

What are the most common mechanisms to produce cardiac arrhythmias?

Decreased automaticity, triggered activity or reentry

Reentry, electrical dysfunction or activity

Stress, hard work or swimming

Enhanced automaticity, triggered activity or reentry