Urinary Tract Infections

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   Discussion: Urinary Tract Infections

Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are caused by bacteria—most often Escherichia coli. However, certain viruses, fungi, and parasites can also lead to infection. The infection can affect the lower and upper urinary tract, including the urethra, prostate (in males), bladder, ureter, and kidney. Due to the progression of the disease and human anatomy, symptoms present differently among the sexes as well as among age groups. It is important to understand how these factors, as well as others, impact the pathophysiology of UTIs. Advanced practice nurses must have this foundation in order to properly diagnose patients.

                                            

                                          To Prepare

Review Chapter 30 in the Huether and McCance text.

Identify the pathophysiology of lower and upper urinary tract infections.      Consider the similarities and differences between the two types of infections.

Select two of the following patient factors: genetics, gender, ethnicity, age, or behavior.

Reflect on how the factors you selected might impact the pathophysiology of the infections, as well as the diagnosis of and treatment for the infections.

Post a description of the pathophysiology of lower and upper urinary tract infections, including their similarities and differences.

Then explain how the factors you selected might impact the pathophysiology of the infections, as well as the diagnosis of and treatment for the infections.

NOTE: This is the link of the book you have to use

https://drive.google.com/file/d/12MGt6z2PicuM1y4rM-SN8rpGD09-Tmkj/view?usp=sharing
https://drive.google.com/file/d/12MGt6z2PicuM1y4rM-SN8rpGD09-Tmkj/view?usp=sharing
Check the documents attached bellow

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What is an Letter of Advice, communications homework help

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This is 25% of my grade.

Letter of Advice

For this assignment, you will write a letter of advice to either a newly engaged couple or a group of coworkers. Imagine that either the engaged couple or coworkers hear that you are taking a course in interpersonal communication and want advice regarding how to communicate in their personal or professional relationships. Based on what you have learned in this course, your personal experience, and the five learning objectives we have covered, what advice would you give them regarding how to communicate effectively? How can you use what you have learned in this class to offer a couple or group of co-workers advice to have more positive relationships? Write your paper in the form of a letter. Please review the Sample Final Paper.

Instructions
Use the list of learning outcomes to write your letter. The course learning outcomes you will need to cover are listed below:

  • Explain the principles of and barriers to effective interpersonal communications.
  • Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem.
  • Differentiate appropriate levels of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships.
  • Describe strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts.
  • Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications.

For each of the five learning outcomes, create a separate heading that states the learning outcome that you are addressing. Then, address the following for each segment:

  • Explain the principles of and barriers to effective interpersonal communications. Why do the principles matter? How can your couple or group of co-workers overcome the barriers you have listed?
  • Analyze the role of communication in developing and maintaining one’s self-concept, self-image, and self-esteem. Begin by defining each term and then explain how these three notions of the self potentially impact the relationships of your couple or group of co-workers. What advice can you offer to help them develop a positive self-concept or build each other’s self-esteem?
  • Illustrate the importance of self-disclosure and emotional intelligence in various relationships. What role does self-disclosure play in the relationships of your couple or co-workers? How can their relationships be improved by them becoming more emotionally intelligent? What connections can be made between emotional intelligence and self-disclosure?
  • Evaluate strategies for using communication techniques to resolve interpersonal conflicts. Explain one or two potential conflicts and then present at least two strategies for addressing the dispute(s).
  • Analyze the impact of gender and culture on interpersonal communications. First, define these two key terms. Then, explain the importance of gender and culture in relationships generally and for your couple or group of co-workers specifically. What advice can you give to become a better communicator based on the information you have presented?

Content Requirements
You must address all five of the learning outcomes and the questions listed with those objectives. For each objective, be sure to define key terms and relate those ideas directly to advice for your couple or co-workers. The point here is for you to demonstrate how these ideas can be utilized to help people in their relationships. Try to offer specific advice they can integrate into their lives.

Begin your paper with an introductory paragraph that has a succinct thesis statement and that previews what you plan to cover in your paper. End with a conclusion that reaffirms your thesis and restates your key points.

You must use at least five scholarly sources to help you make your points. At least three of these should be course readings and two should be academic articles you have found yourself by doing research in the Ashford University Library. If you need help doing research, visit the Ashford University Library, which can be accessed through the Library tab in the left-navigation menu, in your online course.
You must also draw on personal experience to offer advice or to illustrate points. It is acceptable to use hypothetical examples and/or your personal experiences for either your couple or group of co-workers. We simply want to see that you can apply what you have learned to some potential “real world” experience.

The Final Paper

  • Must be 8 to 10 double-spaced pages in length (not including title and references pages) and formatted according to APA style. For assistance, visit the Ashford Writing Center’s APA Essay Checklist for Students.
  • Must include a title page with the following: (For further assistance with the formatting and the title page, please refer to the Formatting Instructions for MS Word 2013)
    • Title of paper
    • Student’s name
    • Course name and number
    • Instructor’s name
    • Date submitted
  • Must include an introduction and conclusion paragraph. Your introduction paragraph needs to end with a clear thesis statement that indicates the purpose of your paper. For assistance on writing Introductions and Conclusions as well as Thesis Statements, please refer to the Ashford Writing Center resources.
  • Must use each learning objectives as a header dividing each section of the paper.
  • Must use the textbook as a source. The Integrating Research tutorial will offer further assistance on including supporting information and reasoning.
  • Must use two additional course articles/videos and two academic articles the student has found independently. A total of five sources must be used in the paper and be on the reference list.
  • Must document any information from a source in APA style, as outlined in the Ashford Writing Center’s In-Text Citation Guide.
  • Must include a separate APA References List that is formatted according to APA style.

Before you submit your written assignment, you are encouraged to review The Grammarly Guide: How to Set Up & Use Grammarly tutorial, set up a Grammarly account (if you have not already done so), and use Grammarly to review a rough draft of your assignment. Then carefully review all issues identified by Grammarly and revise your work as needed.

Final Notes
This is a formal paper and should utilize proper grammar, complete sentences, and paragraph transitions. However, you will write this paper in the format of a letter to the newly-engaged couple or group of co-workers. Feel free to address the people you select directly throughout the paper.

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Price Quotes and Pricing Decisions Applied Problems, assignment help

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Price Quotes and Pricing Decisions Applied Problems***Put in word document*** Label and answer all parts***show all work and any calculations***Read questions in full!!!Original Work

Please complete the following two applied problems:

Problem 1:

Jessica Alba, a famous actress, starts the baby and family products business, The Honest Company, with Christopher Gavigan. Alba and Gavigan set up their site so families can choose what kinds of non-toxic, all-natural products they’d like to use and get them in a bundle. Families can choose all kinds of products from food to hygiene necessities and cleaning supplies. Suppose they are thinking of expanding their business into five domestic markets: Phoenix, Dallas, Chicago, New York, and Atlanta. Assume their primary goal of business is to maximize economic profits, although they want to do business honestly.

Show all your calculations and process. Describe your answer for each question in three- to five-complete sentences.

  1. You are a business adviser for Alba and Gavigan. Describe a skimming price and a penetration price, and advise them whether they should charge a skimming price or a penetration price, with supportive reasoning for and against each pricing alternative.
  2. Are they likely to make economic profits initially? Can they continue to make economic profits in the long term? Why or why not? Discuss.
  3. What advice would you give to Alba and Gavigan to help them make more profit in the long term?

Problem 2:

You operate your own small building company and have decided to bid on a government contract to build a pedestrian walkway in a national park during the coming winter. The walkway is to be of standard government design and should involve no unexpected costs. Your present capacity utilization rate is moderate and allows sufficient scope to understand this contract, if you win it. You calculate your incremental costs to be $268,000 and your fully allocated costs to be $440,000. Your usual practice is to add between 60% and 80% to your incremental costs, depending on capacity utilization rate and other factors. You expect three other firms to also bid on this contract, and you have assembled the following competitor intelligence about those companies.

Issue

Rival A

Rival B

Rival C

Capacity Utilization

At full capacity

Moderate

Very low

Goodwill Considerations

Very concerned

Moderately concerned

Not concerned

Production Facilities

Small and inefficient plant

Medium sized and efficient plant

Large and very efficient plant

Previous Bidding Pattern

Incremental cost plus 35-50%

 Full cost plus 8-12%

 Full cost plus 10-15%

Cost Structure

Incremental costs exceed yours by about 10%

Similar cost structure to yours

Incremental costs 20% lower but full costs are similar to yours

Aesthetic Factors

Does not like winter jobs or dirty jobs

Does not like messy or inconvenient jobs

Likes projects where it can show its creativity

Political Factors

Decision maker is a relative of the buyer

Decision maker is seeking a new job

Decision maker is looking for a promotion

Show all of your calculations and processes. Describe your answers in three- to five-complete sentences.

  1. What price would you bid if you must win the project?
  2. What price would you bid if you want to maximize the expected value of the contribution from this contract?
  3. Defend your answers with discussion, making any assumptions you feel are reasonable and/or are supported by the information provide

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Public Health, PowerPoint presentation help

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PowerPoint Presentation with a title slide and reference slide that has at least four scholarly sources.

Must have enough slides for 10 minute presentation

Imagine that you have been chosen to represent a public health advocacy group as they begin a campaign to get legislation related to a health issue passed in your state legislature. You have been tasked with the role of presenting a proposed policy to the legislature and advocating that the legislature vote for the policy. You have been told that you will have 10 minutes to present to the legislature. Your presentation should be informative, but also persuasive. The legislature will need to make a decision about whether or not to vote for the policy based on your presentation. Your presentation should be structured exactly as if you were “live” in front of the legislature advocating for them to adopt the policy you are proposing.

For your assignment, you will need to select a public health topic on cardiovascular disease in the United States and a public health policy related to addressing the topic. You may select an actual proposed policy or create one that you think would effectively address the topic. Your presentation should provide enough information about the topic and the proposed policy that a reasonably educated legislator should be able to make an informed decision. Be sure to consider the various questions that a legislator might have about the issue and proposed policy, such as long-term costs and benefits, potential effects on business and industry (especially those that support politicians’ campaigns), and how the policy will support the health and productivity of state residents.

For this assignment, you should create an approximately 10 minute presentation* that addresses each of the following points:

•  Discuss the public health issue that your proposed policy is intended to address. Questions to consider:

◦  Who does this health issue affect?

◦  What is the impact of this health issue on the community?

◦  Why does this health issue need to be addressed?

•  Explain the proposed public health policy. Questions to consider:

◦  Who will be affected by this policy?

◦  How will this policy address the health issue?

◦  What will change by enacting this policy?

•  Evaluate the impacts of the proposed policy. Questions to consider:

◦  What are the costs and benefits of the policy?

◦  What are the risks of enacting or not enacting the policy?

◦  How will the lives of people who are affected by the health issue change if this policy is enacted?

•  Create an influential presentation that affects voting behaviors of legislators. Questions to consider:

◦  What information about this policy would potentially affect the voting behavior of legislators from across the political spectrum (eg. conservative, moderate, liberal, progressive; particularly those who might not support the policy based on political orientation)?

◦  What are the most important messages that legislators need to hear about this policy?

◦  How would the constituents of the legislators voting for this policy feel about this policy and a legislator who votes for it?

◦  What information would a legislator need to “sell” the policy to constituents who were perhaps not in favor of adopting the policy?

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What is this analysis and what is the cost benefit, accounting homework help

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The Fashionable Company manufactures various types of clothing. The computerized cost accounting system accumulates the costs of manufacturing these products. Variance reports are produced and reviewed but sometimes need to be run again due to errors or revised data. The costs of this reprocessing work is $15,000. A new data validation control procedure within the cost accounting system is proposed to reduce the risk of the data errors from 12% to 1.5%. Costs to implement this procedure and run it every week amount to $700. Perform an analysis of this procedure and recommend whether the cost-benefit of implementing such a procedure makes sense or not.

Your well-written paper should meet the following requirements:

  • Be 3-4 pages in length.
  • Be formatted according to APA

    • Cite a minimum of two scholarly sources

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    How to search for a new hire, business and finance homework help

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    Imagine you are the HR manager at a company. You need to hire three (3) new people. One employee will work at the front desk as a customer service assistant, and the other two (2) will work on the production line. Give at least five (5) places you would recruit for each position and explain why each place would be a viable option.

    Write a one (1) page paper in which you:

    1. Select at least five (5) places you would recruit for a customer service assistant and at least five (5) places you would recruit for production line workers.
    2. Explain why each place you selected would be a viable option for recruiting employees.
    3. Format your assignment according to the following formatting requirements:
      1. Typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides.
      2. Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, your name, your professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page is not included in the required page length.

    “HR Basics: Recruitment & Selection” located at https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7TNxZclJPr4

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    contemporary issues in accounting, assignment help

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    Case Study:

    In early 2013, the remuneration committee of Boom Co (a listed company) met to determine the rewards for the executive directors. It was the practice of the committee to meet annually to decide on executive rewards for the forthcoming financial year. In line with best practice, the committee was made up entirely of non-executive directors.

    When the remuneration committee met, its chairman, Sarah Umm, reminded those present that the committee should comply with the guidance of the relevant code of corporate governance. She read out the section that she believed was most relevant to their discussions.

    ‘A significant proportion of executive directors’ remuneration should be structured so as to link rewards to corporate and individual performance. The remuneration committee should judge where to position their company relative to other companies. But they should use such comparisons with caution in view of the risk of an upward movement of remuneration levels with no corresponding improvement in performance. Remuneration for non-executive directors should not include share options or other performance-related elements.’

    She explained that the committee should balance several concerns when setting rewards: the link with performance, market rates and the company’s overall strategy. The strategic priority in the next few years, she explained, was to incentivise medium to long-term growth whilst retaining the existing executive board in place as long as possible.

    At the end of the meeting, a new member of the committee, Sam South, asked whether there were any performance-related elements of non-executive directors’ rewards. Sarah Umm explained that these were only available to executive members of the board in line with the terms of the corporate governance code.

    Required : 

    Task (1) Distinguish between the concepts of Social Responsibility Accounting (SRA ) andCorporate Governance (CG)

    Task (2) Explain what is meant by a ‘code of corporate governance’ and discuss the general purposes of such a code in listed companies such as Boom Co. 

    Task (3) Propose how the components of a reward package might be balanced to ‘incentivise medium to long-term growth whilst retaining the existing executive board in place as long as possible.’

    Task (4) Briefly explain the general roles of non-executive directors in a listed company such as Boom Co, and discuss why non-executive directors should not receive performance-related elements in their rewards as Sam South enquired.

    *constructions and format of the assignment  :- 

    • introduction ( 100 words )
    • tasks answers : 
    1. Task 1 ( Maximum 150 words ) 
    2. Task 2 ( Maximum 150 words )
    3. task 3 ( Maximum 150 words ) 
    4. task 4 ( Maximum 150 words ) 
    • Limitations ( 100 words )
    • conclusion ( 100  words ) 
    • references

    * support your assignment with relevant graphs, charts, tables( quantitative data) if applicable 

    * Maximum  words of assignment =  850 words 

    Notes :- 

    in the case of task (1), you should draw a table to distinguish between (SRA ) and (CG) . However , the answer of Task (2,3,4 ) is provided and just paraphrase and summarize them to 150 words .

    • Answer of Task (2) 

    Codes of corporate governance

    A code (of corporate governance) is a document that specifies certain standards, principles, norms of behaviour or specific instructions over matters of corporate governance.

    Some have evolved over time as different previous reports were written for different aspects of governance, which were then brought together in combined codes. Others have borrowed from existing codes, perhaps amended slightly to account for national differences.

    Codes of corporate governance are issued by regulatory authorities (such as stock exchanges, governments or semi-autonomous government bodies) and are statements of general principles and detailed guidelines on many matters of corporate governance. They can be implemented either as listing rules (in principles-based jurisdictions) or in law (in rules-based jurisdictions).

    They typically cover all relevant aspects of corporate governance including the roles of the board, risk management, internal controls, executive remuneration and contracts, reporting issues and similar relevant themes. The purpose is to ensure that companies are well-run and in line with shareholders’ interests.

    The purposes of such codes are as follows:

    First, they guide and specify behaviour in matters of governance, internal control and risk management with the objective that by complying with the code, corporate governance will be improved and enhanced.

    Second, they aim to encourage best practice and to improve management performance by preventing practice that might reduce value added or shareholder value.

    Third, codes aim to underpin investor confidence in that high levels of compliance tend to be appreciated by shareholders and poor levels of compliance are sometimes punished. It enables boards to demonstrate the value they place upon the agency relationship and to more adequately discharge the agency responsibilities placed upon them.

    Fourth, codes aim to reduce fraud, waste or inefficiency. One of the main causes of the development of codes (for example in the UK and in the USA) was in response to high-profile frauds, and it was hoped at the time that codes would address this.

    Fifth, in principles-based jurisdictions, the implementation of codes is thought to be a way of reducing the chances of governmental legislation being implemented. Governments are more likely to legislate where other regulatory failure is evident and so an effective code applied as listing rules should (many hope and believe) reduce the likelihood of having inflexible laws applied.

    • Answer of Task (3) 

    Components of reward package

    Sarah Umm told the remuneration committee that the rewards should be linked strongly with the company’s strategy and that these strategic priorities were to ‘incentivise medium to long-term growth whilst retaining the existing executive board as long as possible.’

    The retention of the existing board will be aided by providing a basic salary that meets market rate with in-kind benefits commensurate with the role. This is to ensure that the director is satisfied, and believes himself or herself to be fairly rewarded, regardless of performance in the role.

    Retention can be helped by the payment of one or more loyalty bonuses for staying more than an agreed time period. Again, these would be regardless of performance and intended solely to reward loyalty.

    These may not necessarily be monetary rewards. It may be, for example, that a director receives a car upgrade or additional days paid holiday after the agreed time period.

    The incentivisation of medium to long-term performance will require the use of reward components such as performance bonuses and share options. Performance bonuses can be included for achieving certain targets in alignment with strategy.

    The dates on which these are paid can reflect the time-element of the incentivisation. Sarah Umm wants to incentivise medium to long-term performance, so this is likely to refer to years rather than months.

    In addition, the package could include share options which can be exercised after a number of years. These enable directors to benefit directly from increases in share value and because this is often a longer-term effect, share options may be designed to come into effect after, say, three years.

    • Answer of Task (4) 

    General roles of non-executive directors (NEDs)

    The four general roles of NEDs are: the strategy role, scrutinising role, risk role and the people role. In the strategy role, NEDs may challenge any aspect of strategy they see fit and offer advice or input to help to develop successful strategy. The scrutinising or performance role is where the NEDs’ independence is perhaps the most important.

    NEDs are required to hold executive colleagues to account for decisions taken and company performance. In this respect, they are required to represent the shareholders’ interests against any vested interests or short-term executive pressures.

    The risk role involves NEDs ensuring the company has an adequate system of internal controls and systems of risk management in place. 
    Finally, in the people role, NEDs oversee a range of responsibilities with regard to the management of the executive members of the board. This typically involves issues concerning appointments and remuneration, but might also involve contractual or disciplinary issues, and succession planning.

    NEDs and performance-related elements

    The main reason why NEDs are usually not allowed to receive share options or other performance-related elements as part of their reward packages (as Sam South asked) is because it could threaten their independence and hence their usefulness to the company’s shareholders.

    Whereas executive directors may, for example, be incentivised to take excessive risks to maximise their own rewards, a non-executive, without the performance-related element, will have no such incentive and will be likely to take a more objective view of the strategy being discussed.

    In order to be effective in their roles, NEDs need to be motivated in different ways to their executive colleagues and too much similarity can mean that the scrutiny role is weakened. If both executive and non-executive directors are similarly motivated, there will be less scrutiny of proposed strategies for wider impacts, risks, complications and stakeholder impacts, because there will be no-one incentivised to exercise effective scrutiny.

    If they received a similar mix of rewards to executives, they would be motivated to act in similar ways and this might involve favouring short-term measures at variance with longer-term strategic perspectives.

    A concern over short-term share price movements, for example, might take the NEDs’ focus away from longer-term strategic issues and make them more concerned with maximising market value in the short term.

    Because non-executives comprise the remuneration committee, it would be inappropriate for them to decide on their own rewards. It would be an abuse of the responsibility and trust invested in them by shareholders were NEDs to reward themselves too much or incentivise themselves in an inappropriate way.

    Accordingly, it is usual for NEDs to be paid a fair rate based on external comparison figures (often a daily rate or similar) so that there is no question of it being seen as excessive. A NED’s pay is usually a small fraction of that for executive colleagues.

    Last note : please do not use external source to solve Tasks (2,3,4) and just use the answer that is provided and paraphrase and summarize , but in task (1) solve it by yourself 


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    disaster recovery plan

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    Develop a disaster recovery plan to lessen health disparities and improve access to community services after a disaster. Then, develop and record an 8-10 slide presentation (PowerPoint preferred) of the plan with audio for the Vila Health system, city officials, and the disaster relief team.

    As you begin to prepare this assessment, you are encouraged to complete the Disaster Preparedness and Management activity. The information gained from completing this activity will help you succeed with the assessment as you think through key issues in disaster preparedness and management in the community or workplace. Completing activities is also a way to demonstrate engagement.

    Professional Context

    Nurses fulfill a variety of roles, and their diverse responsibilities as health care providers extend to the community. The decisions we make daily and in times of crisis often involve the balancing of human rights with medical necessities, equitable access to services, legal and ethical mandates, and financial constraints. When an unanticipated event occurs, such as an accident or natural disaster, issues can arise that complicate decisions about meeting the needs of an individual or group, including understanding and upholding their rights and desires, mediating conflict, and applying established ethical and legal standards of nursing care. As a nurse, you must be knowledgeable about disaster preparedness to safeguard those in your care. You are also accountable for promoting equitable quality of care for community residents.

    This assessment provides an opportunity for you to apply the concepts of emergency preparedness, public health assessment, triage, management, and surveillance after a disaster. You will also focus on hospital evacuation and extended displacement periods.

    Demonstration of Proficiency

    By successfully completing this assessment, you will demonstrate your proficiency in the following course competencies and assessment criteria:

    • Competency 1: Analyze health risks and health care needs among distinct populations.
      • Describe the determinants of health and the cultural, social, and economic barriers that impact safety, health, and disaster recovery efforts in a community.
    • Competency 2: Propose health promotion strategies to improve the health of populations.
      • Present specific, evidence-based strategies to overcome communication barriers and enhance interprofessional collaboration to improve disaster recovery efforts.
    • Competency 3: Evaluate health policies, based on their ability to achieve desired outcomes.
      • Explain how health and governmental policy affect disaster recovery efforts.
    • Competency 4: Integrate principles of social justice in community health interventions.
      • Explain how a proposed disaster recovery plan will lessen health disparities and improve access to community services.
    • Competency 5: Apply professional, scholarly communication strategies to lead health promotion and improve population health.
      • Present a compelling case to community stakeholders to obtain their approval and support for a proposed disaster recovery plan.

    Note: Complete the assessments in this course in the order in which they are presented.

    Preparation

    When disaster strikes, community members must be protected. A comprehensive recovery plan, guided by the MAP-IT (Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track) framework, is essential to help ensure everyone’s safety. The unique needs of residents must be assessed to lessen health disparities and improve access to equitable services after a disaster. Recovery efforts depend on the appropriateness of the plan, the extent to which key stakeholders have been prepared, and the allocation of available resources. In a time of cost containment, when personnel and resources may be limited, the needs of residents must be weighed carefully against available resources.

    In this assessment, you are a member of a community task force responsible for developing a disaster recovery plan for the Vila Health community using MAP-IT, which you will present to city officials and the disaster relief team.

    To prepare for the assessment, complete the Vila Health: Disaster Recovery Scenario simulation.

    In addition, you are encouraged to complete the Disaster Preparedness and Management activity. The information gained from completing this activity will help you succeed with the assessment as you think through key issues in disaster preparedness and management in the community or workplace. Completing activities is also a way to demonstrate engagement.

    Begin thinking about:

    • Community needs.
    • Resources, personnel, budget, and community makeup.
    • People accountable for implementation of the disaster recovery plan.
    • Healthy People 2020 goals.
    • A timeline for the recovery effort.

    You may also wish to:

    • Review the MAP-IT (Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track) framework, which you will use to guide the development of your plan:
      • Mobilize collaborative partners.
      • Assess community needs.
      • Plan to lessen health disparities and improve access to services.
      • Implement a plan to reach Healthy People 2020 objectives.
      • Track community progress.
    • Review the assessment instructions and scoring guide to ensure that you understand the work you will be asked to complete.

    Note: Remember that you can submit all, or a portion of, your draft recovery plan to Smarthinking Tutoring for feedback, before you submit the final version for this assessment. If you plan on using this free service, be mindful of the turnaround time of 24–48 hours for receiving feedback.

    Note: If you require the use of assistive technology or alternative communication methods to participate in this activity, please contact [email protected] to request accommodations.

    Instructions

    Complete the following:

    1. Develop a disaster recovery plan for the Vila Health community that will lessen health disparities and improve access to services after a disaster. Refer back to the Vila Health: Disaster Recovery Scenario to understand the Vila Health community.
      • Assess community needs.
      • Consider resources, personnel, budget, and community makeup.
      • Identify the people accountable for implementation of the plan and describe their roles.
      • Focus on specific Healthy People 2020 goals.
      • Include a timeline for the recovery effort.
    2. Use the MAP-IT (Mobilize, Assess, Plan, Implement, Track) framework to guide the development of your plan:
      • Mobilize collaborative partners.
      • Assess community needs.
      • Plan to lessen health disparities and improve access to services.
      • Implement a plan to reach Healthy People 2020 objectives.
      • Track community progress.
    3. Develop a slide presentation of your disaster recovery plan with an audio recording of you presenting your assessment of the Vila Health: Disaster Recovery Scenario for city officials and the disaster relief team.
    Presentation Format and Length

    You may use Microsoft PowerPoint (preferred) or other suitable presentation software to create your slides and add your voice-over. If you elect to use an application other than PowerPoint, check with your instructor to avoid potential file compatibility issues.

    Be sure that your slide deck includes the following slides:

    • Title slide.
      • Recovery plan title.
      • Your name.
      • Date.
      • Course number and title.
    • References (at the end of your presentation).

    Your slide deck should consist of 8–10 content slides plus title and references slides. Use the speaker’s notes section of each slide to develop your talking points and cite your sources as appropriate.

    The following resources will help you create and deliver an effective presentation:

    Supporting Evidence

    Cite at least three credible sources from peer-reviewed journals or professional industry publications to support your plan.

    Graded Requirements

    The requirements outlined below correspond to the grading criteria in the scoring guide, so be sure to address each point:

    • Describe the determinants of health and the cultural, social, and economic barriers that impact safety, health, and recovery efforts in the community.
      • Consider the interrelationships among these factors.
    • Explain how your proposed disaster recovery plan will lessen health disparities and improve access to community services.
      • Consider principles of social justice and cultural sensitivity with respect to ensuring health equity for individuals, families, and aggregates within the community.
    • Explain how health and governmental policy impact disaster recovery efforts.
      • Consider the implications for individuals, families, and aggregates within the community of legislation that includes, but is not limited to, the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act, and the Disaster Recovery Reform Act (DRRA).
    • Present specific, evidence-based strategies to overcome communication barriers and enhance interprofessional collaboration to improve the disaster recovery effort.
      • Consider how your proposed strategies will affect members of the disaster relief team, individuals, families, and aggregates within the community.
      • Include evidence to support your strategies.
    • Present a compelling case to community stakeholders to obtain their approval and support for the proposed disaster recovery plan.
      • Develop your presentation with a specific purpose and audience in mind.
      • Adhere to scholarly and disciplinary writing standards and APA formatting requirements.

    Additional Requirements

    Before submitting your assessment, proofread all elements to minimize errors that could distract readers and make it difficult for them to focus on the substance of your presentation.

    Portfolio Prompt: Remember to save the assessment to your ePortfolio so that you may refer to it as you complete the final capstone course.

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    chronic myelogenous leukemia

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    FNU Pathophysiology Quiz

    Question 1

    A 70-year-old woman has received a diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) after a clinical investigation sparked by the presence of leukocytosis in her routine blood work. What clinical course should her care provider tell her to expect?

    Answers:

    A. “It’s likely that this will give you chronic fatigue and malaise for the rest of your life, but that will probably be the extent of your symptoms.”

    B. “Unfortunately, your leukemia will likely enter a crisis mode within a few weeks if we don’t treat it immediately.”

    C. “You could remain the chronic stage of CML for several years before it accelerates and culminates in a crisis.”

    D. “You can expect your blood results, fatigue, and susceptibility to infection to gradually worsen over a few years.”

    Question 2

    Following an injury resulting in a small cut from a knife, the first cells to go to the area of the cut would be the

    Answers:

    A. erythrocytes.

    B. basophils.

    C. neutrophils.

    D. albumin.

    Question 3

    Which of the following diagnostic findings is likely to result in the most serious brain insult?

    Answers:

    A. Moderate decrease in brain tissue volume secondary to a brain tumor removal

    B. High intracellular concentration of glutamate

    C. Increased ICP accompanied by hyperventilation

    D. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) that equals intracranial pressure (ICP)

    Question 4

    Which of the following patients would be most likely to be experiencing an increase in renal erythropoietin production?

    Answers:

    A. A 70-year-old woman admitted with dehydration secondary to an overdose of her potassium-wasting diuretic

    B. A 21-year-old man with acute blood loss secondary to a motor vehicle accident 3 hours prior

    C. A 68-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera

    D. A 71-year-old smoker admitted to hospital with exacerbation of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

    Question 5

    A college student has been experiencing frequent headaches that he describes as throbbing and complaining of difficulty concentrating while studying. Upon cerebral angiography, he is found to have an arteriovenous malformation. Which of the following pathophysiological concepts is likely responsible for his symptoms?

    Answers:

    A. Localized ischemia with areas of necrosis noted on CT angiography

    B. High pressure and local hemorrhage of the venous system

    C. Hydrocephalus and protein in the cerebral spinal fluid

    D. Increased tissue perfusion at the site of the malformation

    Question 6

    A group of nursing students were studying for their pathophysiology exam by quizzing each other about disorders of WBCs and lymphoid tissue. When asked what the first chromosomal abnormality that identified cancer was, one student correctly answered Answers:

    A. interleukin cells.

    B. Philadelphia.

    C. PSA.

    D. BRCA-1.

    Question 7

    A 47-year-old woman was diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 3 years ago and has experienced a progressive onset and severity of complications. She has been admitted to a palliative care unit due to her poor prognosis? What assessments and interventions should the nursing staff of the unit prioritize in their care?

    Answers:

    A. Regular pain assessment and administration of opioid analgesics as needed

    B. Cardiac monitoring and administration of inotropic medications

    C. Assessment and documentation of cognitive changes, including confusion and restlessness

    D. Assessment of swallowing ability and respiratory status

    Question 8

    A 53-year-old man presents with inability to concentrate, itching in his fingers and toes, elevated blood pressure, and unexplained weight loss. He is diagnosed with primary polycythemia. What will be the primary goal of his treatment?

    Answers:

    A. To increase the amount of oxygen distributed by his red blood cells

    B. To reduce the viscosity of his blood

    C. To reduce the mean size of his red cells

    D. To control his hypertension

    Question 9

    During a late night study session, a pathophysiology student reaches out to turn the page of her textbook. Which of the following components of her nervous system contains the highest level of control of her arm and hand action?

    Answers:

    A. Thalamus

    B. Cerebellum

    C. Frontal lobe

    D. Basal ganglia

    Question 10

    The family members of an elderly patient are wondering why his “blood counts” are not rising after his last GI bleed. They state, “He has always bounced back after one of these episodes, but this time it isn’t happening. Do you know why?” The nurse will respond based on which of the following pathophysiological principles?

    Answers:

    A. “Don’t worry about it. We can always give him more blood.”

    B. “Due to stress, the red blood cells of older adults are not replaced as promptly as younger people.”

    C. “Everything slows down when you get older. You just have to wait and see what happens.”

    D. “The doctor may start looking for another cause of his anemia, maybe cancer of the bone.”

    Question 11

    A 44-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with abnormal bleeding and abdominal pain that is later attributed to gallbladder disease. Which of the following diagnoses would the medical team be most justified in suspecting as a cause of the patient’s bleeding?

    Answers:

    A. Hemophilia B

    B. Vitamin K deficiency

    C. Excess calcium

    D. Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

    Question 12

    Your ESRD patient is receiving 2 units of packed red blood cells for anemia (Hgb of 8.2). Twenty minutes into the first transfusion, the nurse observes the patient has a flushed face, hives over upper body trunk, and is complaining of pain in lower back. His vital signs include pulse rate of 110 and BP drop to 95/56.What is the nurse’s priority action? Answers:

    A. Recheck the type of blood infusing with the chart documentation of patient’s blood type. B. Discontinue the transfusion and begin an infusion of normal saline.

    C. Slow the rate of the blood infusion to 50 mL/hour.

    D. Document the assessment as the only action.

    Question 13

    A 5th grade elementary student asks the school nurse how much blood is in an entire body. The nurse should respond that the average grown-up adult has

    Answers:

    A. 2 to 4 cups of blood in his or her body.

    B. 5 to 6 L of blood throughout his or her body.

    C. 3 pints of blood in total.

    D. 3 to 4 quarts of blood in his or her body.

    Question 14

    The geriatrician providing care for a 74-year-old man with diagnosis of Parkinson disease has recently changed the client’s medication regimen. What is the most likely focus of the pharmacologic treatment of the man’s health problem?

    Answers:

    A. Preventing demyelination of the efferent cerebellar pathways

    B. Preventing axonal degradation of motor neurons

    C. Maximizing acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles at neuromuscular junctions

    D. Increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system

    Question 15

    A student makes the statement to a colleague, “Blood plasma is essentially just a carrier for the formed elements like red blood cells and white blood cells.”What would be the most accurate response to this statement?

    Answers:

    A. “Not really. Plasma also contributes to the processes of protein synthesis and hematopoiesis.”

    B. “Actually, plasma plays a significant role in nutrient and waste transport.”

    C. “Actually, plasma is integral to the proper function of the liver and maintenance of acid–base balance.”

    D. “That’s not really true. Plasma is crucial in the immune and inflammatory responses.”

    Question 16

    Several months ago, a 20-year-old male suffered a spinal cord injury brought about by a snowboard trick gone wrong. The lasting effects of his injury include a flaccid bowel and bladder and the inability to obtain an erection. While sensation has been completely preserved in his legs and feet, his motor function is significantly impaired. What type of incomplete spinal cord injury has the man most likely experienced?

    Answers:

    A. Central cord syndrome

    B. Conus medullaris syndrome

    C. Brown-Séquard syndrome

    D. Anterior cord syndrome

    Question 17

    A client with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to alcohol abuse and a hemoglobin level of 5.8 g/dL has been ordered a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client possesses type B antibodies but lacks type D antigens on his red cells. Transfusion of which of the following blood types would be least likely to produce a transfusion reaction?

    Answers:

    A. A–

    B. A

    C. B–

    D. B

    Question 18

    Which of the following clients’ signs and symptoms would allow a clinician to be most justified in ruling out stroke as a cause? An adult

    Answers:

    A. has vomited and complained of a severe headache.

    B. states that his left arm and leg are numb, and gait is consequently unsteady.

    C. has experienced a sudden loss of balance and slurred speech.

    D. has had a gradual onset of weakness, headache, and visual disturbances over the last 2 days.

    Question 19

    Amniocentesis has suggested that a couple’s first child will be born with sickle cell disease. The parents are unfamiliar with the health problem, and their caregiver is explaining the complexities. Which of the following statements by the parents would suggest a need for further teaching or clarification?

    Answers:

    A. “Our baby’s red cells are prone to early destruction because of his or her weak membranes.”

    B. “Our son or daughter likely won’t show the effects of sickling until he or she is school-aged because of the different hemoglobin in babies.”

    C. “Not all of his or her red cells will be sickled, but low oxygen levels can cause them to become so.”

    D. “Sickled cells can block his or her blood vessels, especially in the abdomen, chest, and bones.”

    Question 20

    During science class, a student asks, “What’s the difference between plasma and serum in the blood?” The nurse responds that the primary difference between plasma and serum is that plasma contains

    Answers:

    A. hydrogen ions.

    B. heparin.

    C. white blood cells.

    D. fibrinogen.

    Question 21

    During a flu shot clinic, one of the questions the student nurse asks relates to whether the patient has had Guillain-Barré syndrome in his medical history. The patient asks, “What is that?” How should the nursing student reply?

    Answers:

    A. “A type of paralysis that affects movement on both sides of the body that may even involve the respiratory muscles”

    B. “Influenza-like illness where you had fever and chills for 2 to 3 days after your last flu shot”

    C. “A degenerative disease where you have trouble walking without the help of a cane or walker”

    D. “Swelling of your arm where you got your flu shot, and maybe your eyes and lips had some swelling as well”

    Question 22

    A 22-year-old female college student is shocked to receive a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What are the etiology and most likely treatment for her health problem?

    Answers:

    A. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy

    B. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins

    C. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment

    D. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids

    Question 23

    A baseball player was hit in the head with a bat during practice. In the emergency department, the physician tells the family that he has a “coup”injury. How will the nurse explain this to the family so they can understand?

    Answers:

    A. “It’s like squeezing an orange so tight that the juice runs out of the top.”

    B. “When the bat hit his head, his neck jerked backward causing injury to the spine.”

    C. “Your son has a contusion of the brain at the site where the bat hit his head.”

    D. “Your son has a huge laceration inside his brain where the bat hit his skull.”

    Question 24

    Which of the following glycoproteins is responsible for treating such diseases as bone marrow failure following chemotherapy and hematopoietic neoplasms such as leukemia? Answers:

    A. Growth factors and cytokines

    B. T lymphocytes and natural killer cells

    C. Neutrophils and eosinophils

    D. Natural killer cells and granulocytes

    Question 25

    While being on subcutaneous heparin injections for deep vein thrombosis during her latter pregnancy, a patient begins to experience major side effects. Her OB-GYN physician has called in a specialist who thinks that the patient is experiencing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. The nurse should anticipate which of the following orders?

    Answers:

    A. Immediately discontinue the heparin therapy

    B. Switch to Coumadin 2.5 mg once/day

    C. Decrease the dose of heparin from 5000 units b.i.d to 3000 units b.i.d

    D. Infuse FFP stat

    Question 26

    Which of the following individuals would most likely experience global ischemia to his or her brain?

    Answers:

    A. A woman who is being brought to hospital by ambulance following suspected carbon monoxide poisoning related to a faulty portable heater

    B. A male client who has just had an ischemic stroke confirmed by CT of his head

    C. A woman who has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected intracranial bleed

    D. A man who has entered cardiogenic shock following a severe myocardial infarction

    Question 27

    A new mother and father are upset that their 2-day-old infant is requiring phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. The pediatrician who has followed the infant since birth is explaining the multiplicity of factors that can contribute to high serum bilirubin levels in neonates. Which of the following factors would the physician be most likely to rule out as a contributor?

    Answers:

    A. Transitioning of hemoglobin F (HbF) to hemoglobin A (HbA)

    B. Hepatic immaturity of the infant

    C. Hypoxia

    D. The fact that the infant is being breast-fed

    Question 28

    A 14-year-old boy has been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following pathophysiological phenomena is most responsible for his symptoms?

    Answers:

    A. Viruses are killing some of his B cells and becoming incorporated into the genome of others.

    B. The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is lysing many of the boy’s neutrophils.

    C. The virus responsible for mononucleosis inhibits the maturation of myeloblasts into promyelocytes.

    D. The EBV inhibits the maturation of white cells within his peripheral lymph nodes.

    Question 29

    A 16-year-old female has been brought to her primary care physician by her mother due to the girl’s persistent sore throat and malaise. Which of the following facts revealed in the girl’s history and examination would lead the physician to rule out infectious mononucleosis?

    Answers:

    A. Chest auscultation reveals crackles in her lower lung fields bilaterally.

    B. Her liver and spleen are both enlarged.

    C. Blood work reveals an increased white blood cell count.

    D. The girl has a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) and has enlarged lymph nodes.

    Question 30

    A 30-year-old woman who has given birth 12 hours prior is displaying signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The client’s husband is confused as to why a disease of coagulation can result in bleeding. Which of the nurse’s following statements best characterizes DIC?

    Answers:

    A. “The same hormones and bacteria that cause clotting also cause bleeding.”

    B. “Massive clotting causes irritation, friction, and bleeding in the small blood vessels.”

    C. “So much clotting takes place that there are no available clotting components left, and bleeding ensues.”

    D. “Excessive activation of clotting causes an overload of vital organs, resulting in bleeding.”

    Question 31

    A 20-year-old has been diagnosed with an astrocytic brain tumor located in the brain stem. Which of the following statements by the oncologist treating the client is most accurate?

    Answers:

    A. “Our treatment plan will depend on whether your tumor is malignant or benign.”

    B. “This is likely a result of a combination of heredity and lifestyle.”

    C. “The major risk that you face is metastases to your lungs, liver, or bones.”

    D. “Your prognosis will depend on whether we can surgically resect your tumor.”

    Question 32

    A patient diagnosed with low-risk chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) has recently developed thrombocytopenia. One of the medications utilized to treat this would be Answers:

    A. cisplatin, a chemotherapeutic.

    B. vincristine, a Vinca alkaloid.

    C. dexamethasone, a corticosteroid.

    D. doxorubicin, a cytotoxic antibiotic.

    Question 33

    Two nursing students are attempting to differentiate between the presentations of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which of the students’ following statements best captures an aspect of the two health problems? Answers:

    A. “ITP can be either inherited or acquired, and if it’s acquired, it involves an enzyme deficiency.”

    B. “Both of them involve low platelet counts, but in TTP, there can be more, not less, hemostasis.

    C. “TTP can be treated with plasmapheresis, but ITP is best addressed with transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.”

    D. “Both diseases can result from inadequate production of thrombopoietin by megakaryocytes.”

    Question 34

    A physician is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the importance of completing his course of antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis. The physician explains the damage that could occur to lung tissue by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the physician’s explanation?

    Answers:

    A. Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation.

    B. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens.

    C. Macrophages form a capsule around the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas.

    D. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis.

    Question 35

    A teenager, exposed to West Nile virus a few weeks ago while camping with friends, is admitted with headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity. The teenager is also displaying some lethargy and disorientation. The nurse knows which of the following medical diagnoses listed below may be associated with these clinical manifestations?

    Answers:

    A. Encephalitis

    B. Lyme disease

    C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

    D. Spinal infection

    Question 36

    A patient has been diagnosed with anemia. The physician suspects an immune hemolytic anemia and orders a Coombs test. The patient asks the nurse what this test will tell the doctor. The nurse replies,

    Answers:

    A. “They are looking for the presence of antibody or complement on the surface of the RBC.”

    B. “They will look at your RBCs under a microscope to see if they have an irregular shape (poikilocytosis).”

    C. “They will wash your RBCs and then mix the cells with a reagent to see if they clump together.”

    D. “They will be looking to see if you have enough ferritin in your blood.”

    Question 37

    A 29-year-old construction worker got a sliver under his fingernail 4 days ago. The affected finger is now reddened, painful, swollen, and warm to touch. Which of the following hematological processes is most likely occurring in the bone marrow in response to the infection?

    Answers:

    A. Phagocytosis by myelocytes

    B. Increased segmented neutrophil production

    C. High circulatory levels of myeloblasts

    D. Proliferation of immature neutrophils

    Question 38

    A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate?

    Answers:

    A.“We think that his spleen is inhibiting the production of platelets by his bone marrow.”

    B.“We believe that your son’s spleen is causing the destruction of many of his blood platelets, putting him at a bleeding risk.”

    C.“Your son’s spleen is holding on to too many of his platelets, so they’re not available for clotting.”

    D.“Your son’s spleen is inappropriately filtering out the platelets from his blood and keeping them from normal circulation.”

    Question 39 A nurse practitioner is providing care for a client with low levels of the plasma protein gamma globulin. The nurse would recognize that the client is at risk of developing which of the following health problems?

    Answers:

    A. Anemia

    B. Blood clots

    C. Jaundice

    D. Infections

    Question 40

    A 32-year-old woman presents at her neighborhood health clinic complaining of weakness and a feeling of abdominal fullness. She reports that 6 months earlier she noticed that she had difficulty in maintaining the high level of energy she has relied on during her aerobic workouts over the past few years. Because she felt that she was in overall good health, but knew that women often need additional iron, she added a multiple vitamin with iron and some meat and leafy greens to her diet. She followed her plan carefully but had no increase in energy. Upon examination, her spleen is noted to be enlarged. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?

    Answers:

    A. CLL

    B. Accelerated CML

    C. Infectious mononucleosis

    D. Stage A Hodgkin disease

    Question 41

    A nurse is providing care for several patients on an acute medical unit of a hospital.Which of the following patients would be most likely to benefit from hematopoietic growth factors?

    Answers:

    A. A 61-year-old female patient with end-stage renal cancer

    B. A 55-year-old obese male patient with peripheral neuropathy secondary to diabetes

    C. A 51-year-old female patient with liver failure secondary to hepatitis

    D. A 44-year-old man with a newly diagnosed brain tumor

    Question 42

    Misinterpreting her physician’s instructions, a 69-year-old woman with a history of peripheral artery disease has been taking two 325 mg tablets of aspirin daily. How has this most likely affected her hemostatic status?

    Answers:

    A. The binding of an antibody to platelet factor IV produces immune complexes.

    B. The patient’s prostaglandin (TXA2) levels are abnormally high.

    C. Irreversible acetylation of platelet cyclooxygenase activity has occurred.

    D. She is at risk of developing secondary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).

    Question 43 Which of the following teaching points would be most appropriate with a client who has a recent diagnosis of von Willebrand disease?

    Answers:

    A. “Make sure that you avoid taking aspirin.”

    B. “Your disease affects your platelet function rather than clot formation.”

    C. “Clotting factor VIII can help your body compensate for the difficulty in clotting.”

    D. “It’s important that you avoid trauma.”

    Question 44

    A nurse at a long-term care facility provides care for an 85-year-old man who has had recent transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). Which of the following statements best identifies future complications associated with TIAs? TIAs

    Answers:

    A. are caused by small bleeds that can be a warning sign of an impending stroke.

    B. are a relatively benign sign that necessitates monitoring but not treatment.

    C. are an accumulation of small deficits that may eventually equal the effects of a full CVA. D. resolve rapidly but may place the client at an increased risk for stroke.

    Question 45

    Following a motor vehicle accident 3 months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents?

    Answers:

    A. “If you or the care team notices any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan.”

    B. “Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes.”

    C. “Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change.”

    D. “Your daughter’s condition is an unfortunate combination with total loss of consciousness but continuation of all other normal brain functions.”

    Question 46

    A couple who is expecting their first child has been advised by friends to consider harvesting umbilical cord blood in order to have a future source of stem cells. The couple has approached their caregiver with this request and is seeking clarification of exactly why stem cells are valuable and what they might expect to gain from harvesting it. How can their caregiver best respond to the couple’s enquiry? Stem cells can

    Answers:

    A. “be used as source of reserve cells for the entire blood production system.”

    B. “help treat some cancers and anemias, but they must come from your child himself or herself.”

    C. “be used to regenerate damaged organs should the need ever arise.”

    D. “help correct autoimmune diseases and some congenital defects.”

    Question 47 A surgeon is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old boy the rationale for the suggestion of removing the boy’s spleen. Which of the following teaching points would be most accurate?

    Answers:

    A. “Ferritin is a protein–iron complex that allows your red blood cells to make use of the iron that you consume in your diet.”

    B. “Ferritin is the activated and usable form of iron that your red blood cells can use to transport oxygen.”

    C. “Ferritin is the form of iron that is transported in your blood plasma to red blood cells that need it.”

    D. “Ferritin is a stored form of iron that indirectly shows me whether you would benefit from iron pills.”

    Question 48

    A 13-year-old African American boy comes to the ER complaining of fatigue and a rapid heartbeat. In conversation with the father, it becomes apparent to you that the boy has grown 2 inches in the previous 5 months. What is the first problem the health care team would attempt to rule out?

    Answers:

    A. Aplastic anemia

    B. Sickle cell anemia

    C. Thalassemia

    D. Iron deficiency anemia

    Question 49

    In which of the following patients, would diagnostic investigations least likely reveal increased thrombopoietin production?

    Answers:

    A. A 55-year-old man with dehydration secondary to Crohn disease

    B. An 81-year-old woman with diagnoses of rheumatoid arthritis and failure to thrive

    C. A 66-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases

    D. A 21-year-old woman awaiting bone marrow transplant for myelogenous leukemia

    Question 50

    A hospital laboratory technologist is analyzing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient. Which of the following statements best reflects an aspect of the platelets that would constitute part of the CBC?

    Answers:

    A. New platelets are released from the bone marrow into circulation.

    B. The half-life of a platelet is typically around 8 to 12 days.

    C. Platelets originate with granulocyte colony–forming units (CFU).

    D. The α-granules of platelets contribute primarily to vasoconstriction.

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    Assignment 1: Essay, communications homework help’

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    PLEASE ENSURE NO PLAGIARISM

    Students, please view the “Submit a Clickable Rubric Assignment” in the Student Center.

    Instructors, training on how to grade is within the Instructor Center.

    Assignment 1: Essay
    Due Week 4 and worth 100 points

    Choose one (1) of the three (3) reading selections from the list of topic choices below. The focus is on brief but important primary source material written by major authors. Read the selections as identified with each topic below. Write a three to four (3-4) paragraph essay (250 words minimum) which analyzes the “surprise ending” of the reading selection.

    Topic Choices

    • Reading selection from Descartes’ Discourse on the Method (Part IV). Descartes begins with a proof of one basic conclusion and ends with a proof of something much grander. Remember to focus on the surprise and point of realization, not the details of the philosophical argument. Read Part IV of the Discourse on the Method located at http://www.earlymoderntexts.com/assets/pdfs/descartes1637.pdf (then scroll down to Part 4, pp. 14-18). This is only four or five (4 or 5) pages of the larger work.
    • Reading selection of Swift’s A Modest Proposal. It is essential to recognize the genre of this work, as discussed in our class text, which you should consult and cite. Swift promotes a radical solution, but subtle options are mentioned. You are looking for surprise and a point of realization. Read and focus on A Modest Proposal located at http://www.victorianweb.org/previctorian/swift/modest.html.
    • Two (2) reading selections from Voltaire’s Candide. Consider how these readings start and end in terms of the action and the beliefs. You are looking for surprise and a point of realization. These selections can be found on pp. 840-841 in the textbook. In addition, consult the class text at pp. 824-825.

    For the reading selection you choose:

    1. Clearly state in your own words the “surprise ending” in the reading you selected. Clearly identify the point in the reading when you realized that there were elements in the reading that surprised you. Not all of the surprises come at the end.
    2. Evaluate how successful the author was in convincing you to accept the validity of the “surprise ending” that was different from what you expected.

    Your assignment must follow these formatting requirements:

    • Be typed, double spaced, using Times New Roman font (size 12), with one-inch margins on all sides; citations and references must follow APA Style format. Check with your professor for any additional instructions. (Note: Students can find APA style materials located in the Additional Resources section of their Student Center within their course shell for reference)
    • Include a cover page containing the title of the assignment, the student’s name, the professor’s name, the course title, and the date. The cover page and the reference page are not included in the required assignment page length.
    • Use the source(s) identified above for the topic you choose, focusing on the main primary source of that author. You may use additional sources also if they are of good academic quality for college papers (Wikipedia and similar websites do not qualify). Use proper APA style in-text citing and also a matching APA style References list at the end.

    The specific course learning outcomes associated with this assignment are:

    • Explain how key social, cultural, and artistic contributions contribute to historical changes.
    • Explain the importance of situating a society’s cultural and artistic expressions within a historical context.
    • Examine the influences of intellectual, religious, political, and socio-economic forces on social, cultural, and artistic expressions.
    • Identify major historical developments in world cultures from the Renaissance to the contemporary period.
    • Use technology and information resources to research issues in the study of world cultures.
    • Write clearly and concisely about world cultures using proper writing mechanics.

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